ATI RN Capstone Proctored Comprehensive
Assessment Bundle 2026/2027 | Complete
NCLEX Nursing Prep
1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client 2 days postoperative reporting incisional pain rated 4/10
B. A client with COPD whose oxygen saturation is 88% on 2 L nasal cannula
C. A client requesting discharge instructions
D. A client with a urinary tract infection awaiting antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airway/breathing/oxygenation threats take priority under ABC/Maslow. An SpO₂
of 88% in a COPD client indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention. Pain rated 4/10,
discharge teaching, and awaiting antibiotics are important but not immediately life-threatening.
2. A nurse is delegating tasks. Which task is appropriate to delegate to a UAP?
A. Administering a scheduled oral medication
B. Teaching a client about a new insulin regimen
C. Obtaining a blood pressure on a stable client
D. Assessing a client's surgical wound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs may perform vital signs on stable clients. Medication administration, client
teaching, and assessments (wound evaluation) require the RN's scope of practice and cannot be
delegated.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action demonstrates correct
informed consent verification?
A. Asking the UAP to witness the consent
B. Confirming the provider explained risks, benefits, and alternatives and the client signed
voluntarily
C. Assuming consent is implied because the client is hospitalized
D. Obtaining consent from the client's adult child without documentation
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valid informed consent requires the provider to disclose risks, benefits, and
alternatives; the client must consent voluntarily and be competent. Family consent without
legal authority or documentation is invalid.
4. SATA — A nurse is acting as a client advocate. Which actions reflect advocacy? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Reporting a suspected medication error
B. Ignoring a client's refusal of treatment
C. Ensuring the client's cultural preferences are respected
D. Speaking privately with a client who reports feeling unsafe at home
E. Sharing the client's HIV status with the unit secretary
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: Advocacy includes protecting safety, reporting errors, respecting culture, and
supporting clients who disclose abuse. Ignoring refusal violates autonomy; sharing HIV status
without need-to-know violates HIPAA.
5. A nurse is reviewing an incident report. Which statement is correct?
A. The incident report becomes part of the permanent medical record
B. The nurse should document "incident report filed" in the chart
C. Incident reports are used for quality improvement and risk management
D. Incident reports are only completed for medication errors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Incident reports are internal QI/risk-management tools, not part of the medical
record, and should not be referenced in the chart. They are completed for any unexpected
event.
6. A nurse receives a verbal order from a provider. Which action is priority?
A. Transcribe the order and read it back to the provider
B. Ask another nurse to verify
C. Wait until the provider writes the order
D. Document the order as a telephone order without read-back
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Read-back verification prevents transcription errors and is required for
verbal/telephone orders. Documentation must occur promptly with read-back confirmation.
7. A nurse is assigning clients to rooms. Which client requires a negative-pressure airborne
infection isolation room?
A. Client with bacterial meningitis
B. Client with active pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Client with Clostridioides difficile
D. Client with MRSA wound infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions with negative-pressure
airflow and N95 respiratory protection. Meningitis is droplet; C. diff and MRSA require contact
precautions.
8. SATA — A nurse is reviewing HIPAA. Which actions violate client confidentiality? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Discussing a client's diagnosis in the elevator
B. Accessing a coworker's medical record out of curiosity
C. Providing a client's records to a court with a valid subpoena
D. Leaving a client's chart open on a computer screen in a hallway
E. Faxing records to a provider without a cover sheet
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Public discussion, curiosity access, unattended screens, and unsecured faxes
violate HIPAA. Releasing records under valid subpoena is a legal exception.
9. A nurse is completing an SBAR handoff. Which component belongs under "R"?
A. "The client is a 68-year-old with COPD."
B. "I think the client is developing fluid overload."
C. "Heart rate 118, BP 158/92, crackles bilaterally."
D. "I recommend obtaining stat ABGs and notifying the provider."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. The nurse's
, clinical interpretation ("I think...") is Assessment. Demographics are Background; vitals are
Assessment data; recommendation is the "R."
10. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks limited English. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Ask the client's 12-year-old child to interpret
B. Use a certified medical interpreter
C. Speak loudly and slowly in English
D. Provide written materials only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certified medical interpreters ensure accuracy and confidentiality. Children and
family members should not interpret for medical care, and written materials alone do not
ensure comprehension.
11. A nurse is prioritizing care using Maslow's hierarchy. Which need should be addressed first?
A. A client who feels lonely after visiting hours
B. A client who is short of breath
C. A client who wants to discuss discharge plans
D. A client who is requesting a chaplain visit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiological needs (oxygenation) precede psychosocial, safety, and self-
actualization needs. Shortness of breath is an immediate physiological priority.
12. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery and discovers the consent is unsigned. Which action
is priority?
A. Have the client sign immediately without further discussion
B. Notify the provider and surgeon to obtain informed consent
C. Proceed with surgery since the client is competent
D. Ask the nurse manager to sign as a witness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The provider/surgeon is responsible for obtaining informed consent. The nurse
verifies consent exists and is signed; unsigned consent must be resolved before proceeding.
Assessment Bundle 2026/2027 | Complete
NCLEX Nursing Prep
1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client 2 days postoperative reporting incisional pain rated 4/10
B. A client with COPD whose oxygen saturation is 88% on 2 L nasal cannula
C. A client requesting discharge instructions
D. A client with a urinary tract infection awaiting antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airway/breathing/oxygenation threats take priority under ABC/Maslow. An SpO₂
of 88% in a COPD client indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention. Pain rated 4/10,
discharge teaching, and awaiting antibiotics are important but not immediately life-threatening.
2. A nurse is delegating tasks. Which task is appropriate to delegate to a UAP?
A. Administering a scheduled oral medication
B. Teaching a client about a new insulin regimen
C. Obtaining a blood pressure on a stable client
D. Assessing a client's surgical wound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs may perform vital signs on stable clients. Medication administration, client
teaching, and assessments (wound evaluation) require the RN's scope of practice and cannot be
delegated.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action demonstrates correct
informed consent verification?
A. Asking the UAP to witness the consent
B. Confirming the provider explained risks, benefits, and alternatives and the client signed
voluntarily
C. Assuming consent is implied because the client is hospitalized
D. Obtaining consent from the client's adult child without documentation
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valid informed consent requires the provider to disclose risks, benefits, and
alternatives; the client must consent voluntarily and be competent. Family consent without
legal authority or documentation is invalid.
4. SATA — A nurse is acting as a client advocate. Which actions reflect advocacy? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Reporting a suspected medication error
B. Ignoring a client's refusal of treatment
C. Ensuring the client's cultural preferences are respected
D. Speaking privately with a client who reports feeling unsafe at home
E. Sharing the client's HIV status with the unit secretary
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: Advocacy includes protecting safety, reporting errors, respecting culture, and
supporting clients who disclose abuse. Ignoring refusal violates autonomy; sharing HIV status
without need-to-know violates HIPAA.
5. A nurse is reviewing an incident report. Which statement is correct?
A. The incident report becomes part of the permanent medical record
B. The nurse should document "incident report filed" in the chart
C. Incident reports are used for quality improvement and risk management
D. Incident reports are only completed for medication errors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Incident reports are internal QI/risk-management tools, not part of the medical
record, and should not be referenced in the chart. They are completed for any unexpected
event.
6. A nurse receives a verbal order from a provider. Which action is priority?
A. Transcribe the order and read it back to the provider
B. Ask another nurse to verify
C. Wait until the provider writes the order
D. Document the order as a telephone order without read-back
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Read-back verification prevents transcription errors and is required for
verbal/telephone orders. Documentation must occur promptly with read-back confirmation.
7. A nurse is assigning clients to rooms. Which client requires a negative-pressure airborne
infection isolation room?
A. Client with bacterial meningitis
B. Client with active pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Client with Clostridioides difficile
D. Client with MRSA wound infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions with negative-pressure
airflow and N95 respiratory protection. Meningitis is droplet; C. diff and MRSA require contact
precautions.
8. SATA — A nurse is reviewing HIPAA. Which actions violate client confidentiality? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Discussing a client's diagnosis in the elevator
B. Accessing a coworker's medical record out of curiosity
C. Providing a client's records to a court with a valid subpoena
D. Leaving a client's chart open on a computer screen in a hallway
E. Faxing records to a provider without a cover sheet
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Public discussion, curiosity access, unattended screens, and unsecured faxes
violate HIPAA. Releasing records under valid subpoena is a legal exception.
9. A nurse is completing an SBAR handoff. Which component belongs under "R"?
A. "The client is a 68-year-old with COPD."
B. "I think the client is developing fluid overload."
C. "Heart rate 118, BP 158/92, crackles bilaterally."
D. "I recommend obtaining stat ABGs and notifying the provider."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. The nurse's
, clinical interpretation ("I think...") is Assessment. Demographics are Background; vitals are
Assessment data; recommendation is the "R."
10. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks limited English. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Ask the client's 12-year-old child to interpret
B. Use a certified medical interpreter
C. Speak loudly and slowly in English
D. Provide written materials only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certified medical interpreters ensure accuracy and confidentiality. Children and
family members should not interpret for medical care, and written materials alone do not
ensure comprehension.
11. A nurse is prioritizing care using Maslow's hierarchy. Which need should be addressed first?
A. A client who feels lonely after visiting hours
B. A client who is short of breath
C. A client who wants to discuss discharge plans
D. A client who is requesting a chaplain visit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiological needs (oxygenation) precede psychosocial, safety, and self-
actualization needs. Shortness of breath is an immediate physiological priority.
12. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery and discovers the consent is unsigned. Which action
is priority?
A. Have the client sign immediately without further discussion
B. Notify the provider and surgeon to obtain informed consent
C. Proceed with surgery since the client is competent
D. Ask the nurse manager to sign as a witness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The provider/surgeon is responsible for obtaining informed consent. The nurse
verifies consent exists and is signed; unsigned consent must be resolved before proceeding.
