EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam 2 | FISDAP |
Academic Year 2026/2027 | Comprehensive
Readiness Examination
DOMAIN 1: PREPARATORY & EMS OPERATIONS (Questions 1–30)
Question 1. An EMT arrives on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. The scene is
safe, and there are multiple patients. Which action should the EMT take FIRST?
A. Begin triage of patients
B. Don appropriate PPE
C. Immediately begin patient assessment
D. Request additional resources
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety includes personal protective equipment (PPE) for
the EMT. Donning appropriate PPE—gloves, eye protection, and high-visibility
vest—is the first action to protect the provider before patient contact. Standard
precautions apply to all patients. Triage (A) comes after PPE and scene size-up.
Patient assessment (C) occurs after PPE. Additional resources (D) may be needed
but not before self-protection.
Question 2. The primary purpose of the EMS system is to:
A. Provide advanced life support to all patients
B. Deliver rapid response, appropriate care, and transport to definitive care
C. Replace hospital emergency departments
D. Generate revenue for the community
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The EMS system is designed to provide rapid response,
appropriate prehospital care, and timely transport to definitive care facilities.
,EMTs provide basic life support; ALS is an extension. EMS does not replace EDs (C)
or exist for revenue generation (D).
Question 3. An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care.
Which document outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure
evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to
provide post-exposure evaluation and follow-up at no cost to the employee,
including risk assessment, testing, and prophylaxis if indicated. HIPAA (C)
addresses privacy; Scope of Practice (D) defines procedures.
Question 4. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative vital sign?
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
C. Level of consciousness
D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Qualitative signs are descriptive and subjective (AVPU, pain
description, skin color). Quantitative signs are measurable numerically (blood
pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, SpO₂). Level of consciousness requires
descriptive assessment.
Question 5. The EMT's scope of practice is defined by:
,A. The medical director only
B. State laws, regulations, and local medical direction
C. The EMT textbook
D. Hospital protocols only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scope of practice is legally defined by state statutes and
administrative rules, then operationally defined by local medical direction and
protocols. Medical directors (A) work within state frameworks. Textbooks (C)
educate but do not authorize practice.
Question 6. An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They
have no equipment. The EMT should:
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
D. Only call 911 but not approach
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMTs have an ethical duty to act, providing care within their
training and available resources. Good Samaritan laws generally protect off-duty
providers acting in good faith.
Question 7. Which of the following is NOT a type of consent required for
treatment by an EMT?
A. Child and mentally incompetent adult consent
B. Implied consent
C. Applied consent
D. Expressed consent
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: There is no "applied consent" in EMS. The recognized types are
expressed, implied, involuntary (for minors/mentally incompetent), and informed
consent. This is a common FISDAP distractor.
Question 8. A patient refuses care and transport after an EMT explains the risks.
Which action should the EMT take?
A. Restrain the patient and transport
B. Document the refusal, obtain a signed release, and advise the patient to call
back if needed
C. Leave immediately without documentation
D. Call law enforcement to force transport
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A competent adult has the right to refuse care. The EMT must
document the refusal, obtain a witnessed signature on a release form, and advise
the patient of the risks. Forcing treatment (A, D) constitutes assault and battery.
Question 9. Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against their
will may result in which charges against the EMT?
A. Abandonment
B. Assault and battery
C. Implied consent
D. Negligence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Forcing a competent adult to receive treatment or transport
constitutes assault (threat) and battery (unwanted touching). Abandonment (A) is
terminating care without ensuring continuation. Negligence (D) is failure to
provide the standard of care.
Question 10. Another name for a DNR order is:
Academic Year 2026/2027 | Comprehensive
Readiness Examination
DOMAIN 1: PREPARATORY & EMS OPERATIONS (Questions 1–30)
Question 1. An EMT arrives on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. The scene is
safe, and there are multiple patients. Which action should the EMT take FIRST?
A. Begin triage of patients
B. Don appropriate PPE
C. Immediately begin patient assessment
D. Request additional resources
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety includes personal protective equipment (PPE) for
the EMT. Donning appropriate PPE—gloves, eye protection, and high-visibility
vest—is the first action to protect the provider before patient contact. Standard
precautions apply to all patients. Triage (A) comes after PPE and scene size-up.
Patient assessment (C) occurs after PPE. Additional resources (D) may be needed
but not before self-protection.
Question 2. The primary purpose of the EMS system is to:
A. Provide advanced life support to all patients
B. Deliver rapid response, appropriate care, and transport to definitive care
C. Replace hospital emergency departments
D. Generate revenue for the community
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The EMS system is designed to provide rapid response,
appropriate prehospital care, and timely transport to definitive care facilities.
,EMTs provide basic life support; ALS is an extension. EMS does not replace EDs (C)
or exist for revenue generation (D).
Question 3. An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care.
Which document outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure
evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to
provide post-exposure evaluation and follow-up at no cost to the employee,
including risk assessment, testing, and prophylaxis if indicated. HIPAA (C)
addresses privacy; Scope of Practice (D) defines procedures.
Question 4. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative vital sign?
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
C. Level of consciousness
D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Qualitative signs are descriptive and subjective (AVPU, pain
description, skin color). Quantitative signs are measurable numerically (blood
pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, SpO₂). Level of consciousness requires
descriptive assessment.
Question 5. The EMT's scope of practice is defined by:
,A. The medical director only
B. State laws, regulations, and local medical direction
C. The EMT textbook
D. Hospital protocols only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scope of practice is legally defined by state statutes and
administrative rules, then operationally defined by local medical direction and
protocols. Medical directors (A) work within state frameworks. Textbooks (C)
educate but do not authorize practice.
Question 6. An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They
have no equipment. The EMT should:
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
D. Only call 911 but not approach
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMTs have an ethical duty to act, providing care within their
training and available resources. Good Samaritan laws generally protect off-duty
providers acting in good faith.
Question 7. Which of the following is NOT a type of consent required for
treatment by an EMT?
A. Child and mentally incompetent adult consent
B. Implied consent
C. Applied consent
D. Expressed consent
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: There is no "applied consent" in EMS. The recognized types are
expressed, implied, involuntary (for minors/mentally incompetent), and informed
consent. This is a common FISDAP distractor.
Question 8. A patient refuses care and transport after an EMT explains the risks.
Which action should the EMT take?
A. Restrain the patient and transport
B. Document the refusal, obtain a signed release, and advise the patient to call
back if needed
C. Leave immediately without documentation
D. Call law enforcement to force transport
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A competent adult has the right to refuse care. The EMT must
document the refusal, obtain a witnessed signature on a release form, and advise
the patient of the risks. Forcing treatment (A, D) constitutes assault and battery.
Question 9. Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against their
will may result in which charges against the EMT?
A. Abandonment
B. Assault and battery
C. Implied consent
D. Negligence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Forcing a competent adult to receive treatment or transport
constitutes assault (threat) and battery (unwanted touching). Abandonment (A) is
terminating care without ensuring continuation. Negligence (D) is failure to
provide the standard of care.
Question 10. Another name for a DNR order is:
