Test Bank for Varney's Midwifery 7th Edition – 540 Exam Questions with Answers & Rationales | 2026 Latest Update

Prepare for midwifery exams with confidence using this comprehensive Test Bank for Varney's Midwifery, 7th Edition by Julia Phillippi & Ira Kantrowitz-Gordon — updated for 2026. This all-in-one digital test bank delivers 540 multiple-choice practice questions covering the complete scope of the Varney's Midwifery textbook, making it the ultimate study companion for student midwives, nurse-midwives, CNM/CM candidates, and educators. Table of Contents Part Section Title Part I Midwifery Context & Professional Foundations Part II Primary Care Part III Sexual, Gynecologic, and Reproductive Health Care Part IV Antepartum Part V Intrapartum Part VI Postpartum Part VII Newborn ________________________________________ Part I: Midwifery Context & Professional Foundations (Questions 1–80) 1. A nurse-midwife is conducting genetic counseling with an Ashkenazi Jewish couple. Which autosomal recessive genetic disease should the midwife discuss with this couple? A) Thalassemia B) Cystic fibrosis C) Sickle cell disease D) Tay-Sachs disease Correct Answer: D Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive condition that is more prevalent in individuals of Ashkenazi Jewish descent. Genetic screening and counseling for this population is a standard part of preconception and prenatal care. DIF: Easy KEY: Genetic counseling; Tay-Sachs; Ashkenazi Jewish MSC: Patient education NOT: Other options are less prevalent in this specific population. 2. A 24-year-old individual presents for an annual wellness exam. During the history, she reveals a history of intimate partner violence (IPV). According to trauma-informed care principles, what is the most appropriate immediate response by the midwife? A) Document the disclosure, immediately call law enforcement, and provide emergency shelter contact numbers. B) Validate the disclosure, assess immediate safety, and offer a supportive, nonjudgmental choice of resources. C) Initiate an immediate psychological consult and contact a social worker to escort the patient. D) Advise the patient on relationship strategies to de-escalate potential conflicts at home. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Trauma-informed care emphasizes patient autonomy, safety, and empowerment. Validating the patient's experience and assessing immediate danger respects their agency without forcing a path of action. Calling law enforcement without consent (A) may escalate danger, while C strips the patient of control, and D shifts blame or responsibility to the victim. DIF: Medium KEY: Intimate partner violence; Trauma-informed care MSC: Professional communication NOT: Mandatory reporting laws vary by jurisdiction but do not typically mandate immediate law enforcement for all disclosures. 3. The bioethical principle exemplified by promoting a client's best interests is known as: A) Autonomy B) Nonmaleficence C) Beneficence D) Justice Correct Answer: C Rationale: Beneficence refers to the ethical obligation to act in the best interest of the patient and promote good. Nonmaleficence is "do no harm," autonomy respects self-determination, and justice concerns fairness. DIF: Easy KEY: Bioethics; Beneficence MSC: Ethical principles NOT: Nonmaleficence (B) is avoiding harm, not actively promoting good. 4. The core competencies for midwifery practice serve primarily to: A) Determine salary scales for midwives B) Inform regulatory agencies, consumers, and employers of minimum expectations for graduates of accredited programs C) Establish a hierarchy among midwifery credentials D) Restrict midwifery practice to hospital settings Correct Answer: B Rationale: Core competencies define the minimum knowledge, skills, and behaviors expected of midwifery graduates, serving as a benchmark for accreditation, certification, and practice expectations. DIF: Easy KEY: Core competencies; Professional foundations MSC: Regulatory standards NOT: Competencies do not determine salaries or restrict practice settings. 5. Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health that directly, rapidly impacts an infant's health? A) Exposure to lead in the home B) Chronic maternal stress C) Access to transportation D) Health literacy of caregivers Correct Answer: A Rationale: Exposure to lead is a direct, rapid-acting mechanism by which a social determinant of health (housing quality) affects infant health outcomes. Chronic stress operates through slower biologic pathways, while transportation and health literacy may have indirect effects. DIF: Medium KEY: Social determinants of health; Lead exposure MSC: Population health NOT: Chronic stress is an indirect, gradual mechanism. 6. A nurse-midwife believes a pregnant client with abnormal moles would benefit from an appointment with a dermatologist. This is an example of: A) Consultation B) Referral C) Collaboration D) Supervision Correct Answer: B Rationale: A referral involves sending a patient to another provider for specialized evaluation or management. Consultation involves seeking advice while retaining primary management responsibility. This scenario describes transferring the specific concern to a specialist. DIF: Medium KEY: Referral; Interprofessional practice MSC: Care coordination NOT: The midwife is not seeking advice while retaining care—she is sending the patient for specialized management.