PATHO final exam review test bank with 290
latest exam questions and correct verified
answers with rationales/ Pathology Newest Final
exam prep test bank Latest 2026-2027
1: A 67-year-old African American male with uncontrolled hypertension was
admitted with the diagnosis of a bladder tumor. What is an expected clinical
finding the nurse would discover upon assessment?
A. Dysuria
B. Painless hematuria
C. Urinary retention
D. Flank pain
-ANSWER- B
Rationale: The most common clinical manifestation of bladder cancer is painless
hematuria.
2: Which renal disorders are considered causes of intrarenal kidney injury? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Tumors
B. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Allograft rejection
E. Hypovolemia
-ANSWER- A, B, C, D
Rationale: Intrarenal kidney injury is caused by conditions that damage the renal
parenchyma, including tumors, acute tubular necrosis, acute glomerulonephritis,
and allograft rejection. Hypovolemia causes prerenal injury.
3: When renin is released, it is capable of which action?
A. Direct activation of aldosterone
B. Vasodilation of renal arteries
C. Formation of angiotensin I
D. Increased sodium excretion
1
,-ANSWER- C
Rationale: Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is then
converted to angiotensin II by ACE.
4: What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A. Direct bacterial invasion
B. Release of streptolysin
C. Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity
D. Immune complexes
-ANSWER- D
Rationale: Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by the deposition
of immune complexes in the glomerulus, initiating an inflammatory response.
5: What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis?
A. Autoimmune destruction of the endometrium.
B. Genetic mutation of endometrial cells.
C. Hormonal imbalance causing endometrial hyperplasia.
D. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal
cavity and remains responsive to hormones.
-ANSWER- D
Rationale: The most widely accepted theory is retrograde menstruation, where
endometrial tissue flows backward through the fallopian tubes into the peritoneal
cavity and responds to hormonal stimulation.
6: A man has balanitis. What action by the healthcare professional is most
appropriate?
A. Obtain a urine culture.
B. Apply a topical antifungal cream.
C. Perform a finger stick for a blood glucose reading.
D. Recommend sitz baths.
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: Balanitis in an adult male is commonly associated with diabetes
mellitus. The healthcare professional should assess blood glucose levels.
7: A woman has a pelvic organ prolapse. What treatments does the healthcare
professional teach the woman about? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pessary
B. Kegel exercises
C. Surgical repair
2
,D. Estrogen therapy
E. Antibiotics
-ANSWER- A, B, C, D
Rationale: Treatment options for pelvic organ prolapse include pessary, Kegel
exercises, surgical repair, and estrogen therapy. Antibiotics are not a treatment for
prolapse.
8: A woman has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome but is confused
because her pelvic ultrasound (US) was read as "normal" and did not show cysts.
What response by the health care professional is most appropriate?
A. "You do not have PCOS."
B. "A normal ultrasound rules out PCOS."
C. "We will schedule another US in 3 months to check again."
D. "Cysts are not required for the diagnosis of PCOS."
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: The Rotterdam criteria for PCOS require two of three findings: oligo-
ovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. A normal
ultrasound does not rule out PCOS; follow-up ultrasound may be scheduled.
9: A healthcare professional is educating a community men's group on symptoms
of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The professional relates that most
symptoms are a result of which pathophysiologic condition?
A. Increased bladder contractility
B. Urethral stricture
C. Prostate cancer
D. Compression of the urethra
-ANSWER- D
Rationale: BPH causes compression of the urethra as the prostate enlarges, leading
to lower urinary tract symptoms.
10: A 19-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting restlessness,
muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. Which of
the following could have caused his condition?
A. Alkalosis
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Acidosis
-ANSWER- D
3
, Rationale: Acidosis causes potassium to shift out of cells into the extracellular
fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
11: Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering
system?
A. Protein buffer system
B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
C. Phosphate buffer system
D. Ammonia buffer system
-ANSWER- B
Rationale: The carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer system is the major plasma
buffering system.
12: A patient has a long history of smoking. He has blood studies done because he
is very tired, is short of breath, and just does not feel well. His blood gases reveal
the following findings: pH, 7.3; HCO3 27 mEq/L; CO2, 58 mmHg. What is the
interpretation of these gases?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), the CO2 is elevated (respiratory component),
and the HCO3 is normal, indicating uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
13: Hypermagnesemia is usually caused by:
A. Excessive magnesium intake
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Renal failure
D. Hyperkalemia
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: Hypermagnesemia is most commonly caused by renal failure, which
impairs magnesium excretion.
14: A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting muscle
weakness and cardiac abnormalities. Laboratory tests indicate that she is
hypokalemic. Which of the following could be the cause of her condition?
A. Renal failure
B. Acidosis
4
latest exam questions and correct verified
answers with rationales/ Pathology Newest Final
exam prep test bank Latest 2026-2027
1: A 67-year-old African American male with uncontrolled hypertension was
admitted with the diagnosis of a bladder tumor. What is an expected clinical
finding the nurse would discover upon assessment?
A. Dysuria
B. Painless hematuria
C. Urinary retention
D. Flank pain
-ANSWER- B
Rationale: The most common clinical manifestation of bladder cancer is painless
hematuria.
2: Which renal disorders are considered causes of intrarenal kidney injury? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Tumors
B. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Allograft rejection
E. Hypovolemia
-ANSWER- A, B, C, D
Rationale: Intrarenal kidney injury is caused by conditions that damage the renal
parenchyma, including tumors, acute tubular necrosis, acute glomerulonephritis,
and allograft rejection. Hypovolemia causes prerenal injury.
3: When renin is released, it is capable of which action?
A. Direct activation of aldosterone
B. Vasodilation of renal arteries
C. Formation of angiotensin I
D. Increased sodium excretion
1
,-ANSWER- C
Rationale: Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is then
converted to angiotensin II by ACE.
4: What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A. Direct bacterial invasion
B. Release of streptolysin
C. Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity
D. Immune complexes
-ANSWER- D
Rationale: Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by the deposition
of immune complexes in the glomerulus, initiating an inflammatory response.
5: What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis?
A. Autoimmune destruction of the endometrium.
B. Genetic mutation of endometrial cells.
C. Hormonal imbalance causing endometrial hyperplasia.
D. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal
cavity and remains responsive to hormones.
-ANSWER- D
Rationale: The most widely accepted theory is retrograde menstruation, where
endometrial tissue flows backward through the fallopian tubes into the peritoneal
cavity and responds to hormonal stimulation.
6: A man has balanitis. What action by the healthcare professional is most
appropriate?
A. Obtain a urine culture.
B. Apply a topical antifungal cream.
C. Perform a finger stick for a blood glucose reading.
D. Recommend sitz baths.
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: Balanitis in an adult male is commonly associated with diabetes
mellitus. The healthcare professional should assess blood glucose levels.
7: A woman has a pelvic organ prolapse. What treatments does the healthcare
professional teach the woman about? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pessary
B. Kegel exercises
C. Surgical repair
2
,D. Estrogen therapy
E. Antibiotics
-ANSWER- A, B, C, D
Rationale: Treatment options for pelvic organ prolapse include pessary, Kegel
exercises, surgical repair, and estrogen therapy. Antibiotics are not a treatment for
prolapse.
8: A woman has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome but is confused
because her pelvic ultrasound (US) was read as "normal" and did not show cysts.
What response by the health care professional is most appropriate?
A. "You do not have PCOS."
B. "A normal ultrasound rules out PCOS."
C. "We will schedule another US in 3 months to check again."
D. "Cysts are not required for the diagnosis of PCOS."
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: The Rotterdam criteria for PCOS require two of three findings: oligo-
ovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. A normal
ultrasound does not rule out PCOS; follow-up ultrasound may be scheduled.
9: A healthcare professional is educating a community men's group on symptoms
of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The professional relates that most
symptoms are a result of which pathophysiologic condition?
A. Increased bladder contractility
B. Urethral stricture
C. Prostate cancer
D. Compression of the urethra
-ANSWER- D
Rationale: BPH causes compression of the urethra as the prostate enlarges, leading
to lower urinary tract symptoms.
10: A 19-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting restlessness,
muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. Which of
the following could have caused his condition?
A. Alkalosis
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Acidosis
-ANSWER- D
3
, Rationale: Acidosis causes potassium to shift out of cells into the extracellular
fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
11: Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering
system?
A. Protein buffer system
B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
C. Phosphate buffer system
D. Ammonia buffer system
-ANSWER- B
Rationale: The carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer system is the major plasma
buffering system.
12: A patient has a long history of smoking. He has blood studies done because he
is very tired, is short of breath, and just does not feel well. His blood gases reveal
the following findings: pH, 7.3; HCO3 27 mEq/L; CO2, 58 mmHg. What is the
interpretation of these gases?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), the CO2 is elevated (respiratory component),
and the HCO3 is normal, indicating uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
13: Hypermagnesemia is usually caused by:
A. Excessive magnesium intake
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Renal failure
D. Hyperkalemia
-ANSWER- C
Rationale: Hypermagnesemia is most commonly caused by renal failure, which
impairs magnesium excretion.
14: A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting muscle
weakness and cardiac abnormalities. Laboratory tests indicate that she is
hypokalemic. Which of the following could be the cause of her condition?
A. Renal failure
B. Acidosis
4
