Certified Critical Care Registered Nurse
Exam Question and correct answers
(verified answers 100%) Q&A
2026/2027 INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A patient with septic shock has a MAP of 58 mmHg despite adequate fluid resuscitation.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first to support blood pressure?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Furosemide
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Adenosine
Correct Answer: A. Norepinephrine
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a first-line vasopressor for persistent hypotension associated with
septic shock after adequate fluid resuscitation.
2. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is receiving mechanical
ventilation. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Use low tidal volumes based on predicted body weight
B. Maintain high tidal volumes
C. Avoid positive end-expiratory pressure
D. Keep the patient completely supine
Correct Answer: A. Use low tidal volumes based on predicted body weight
Rationale: Lung-protective ventilation with low tidal volumes helps reduce ventilator-induced
lung injury in ARDS.
3. A patient develops sudden dyspnea, hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart
sounds. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Aortic stenosis
,Correct Answer: A. Cardiac tamponade
Rationale: Hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds are classic findings
of cardiac tamponade.
4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving an intravenous heparin
infusion?
A. Mild headache
B. Black, tarry stool
C. Heart rate of 82/min
D. Warm skin
Correct Answer: B. Black, tarry stool
Rationale: Melena may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication of
anticoagulation therapy.
5. A patient with increased intracranial pressure is being monitored. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Headache
B. Bradycardia with widening pulse pressure
C. Mild nausea
D. Photophobia
Correct Answer: B. Bradycardia with widening pulse pressure
Rationale: Bradycardia, hypertension with widened pulse pressure, and abnormal respirations
are components of Cushing's response and may indicate worsening intracranial pressure.
6. Which position is generally appropriate for a patient with increased intracranial pressure?
A. Flat with the neck flexed
B. Head of bed elevated with the neck in neutral alignment
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Prone with the neck rotated
Correct Answer: B. Head of bed elevated with the neck in neutral alignment
Rationale: Elevating the head and maintaining neutral neck alignment can promote cerebral
venous drainage and help reduce intracranial pressure.
7. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction suddenly develops pulmonary edema. Which
assessment finding would the nurse expect?
A. Pink, frothy sputum
B. Dry cough only
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Unilateral leg swelling only
, Correct Answer: A. Pink, frothy sputum
Rationale: Acute pulmonary edema from left ventricular failure can cause severe dyspnea and
pink, frothy sputum.
8. Which electrolyte abnormality is most associated with ventricular dysrhythmias?
A. Severe hypokalemia
B. Mild hypernatremia
C. Mild hyperchloremia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct Answer: A. Severe hypokalemia
Rationale: Low potassium levels increase myocardial irritability and can precipitate serious
dysrhythmias.
9. A patient has a potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L and ECG changes. Which medication is used to
stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Sodium chloride
C. Furosemide only
D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer: A. Calcium gluconate
Rationale: IV calcium stabilizes the myocardial membrane during severe hyperkalemia but does
not directly remove potassium from the body.
10. Which ECG finding is commonly associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Peaked T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Shortened PR with delta waves
D. ST elevation in every lead
Correct Answer: A. Peaked T waves
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are an early ECG manifestation of hyperkalemia.
11. A patient develops atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and hypotension.
Which intervention is anticipated?
A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Defibrillation without synchronization
C. Oral potassium only
D. Vagal stimulation as the sole treatment
Exam Question and correct answers
(verified answers 100%) Q&A
2026/2027 INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A patient with septic shock has a MAP of 58 mmHg despite adequate fluid resuscitation.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first to support blood pressure?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Furosemide
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Adenosine
Correct Answer: A. Norepinephrine
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a first-line vasopressor for persistent hypotension associated with
septic shock after adequate fluid resuscitation.
2. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is receiving mechanical
ventilation. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Use low tidal volumes based on predicted body weight
B. Maintain high tidal volumes
C. Avoid positive end-expiratory pressure
D. Keep the patient completely supine
Correct Answer: A. Use low tidal volumes based on predicted body weight
Rationale: Lung-protective ventilation with low tidal volumes helps reduce ventilator-induced
lung injury in ARDS.
3. A patient develops sudden dyspnea, hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart
sounds. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Aortic stenosis
,Correct Answer: A. Cardiac tamponade
Rationale: Hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds are classic findings
of cardiac tamponade.
4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving an intravenous heparin
infusion?
A. Mild headache
B. Black, tarry stool
C. Heart rate of 82/min
D. Warm skin
Correct Answer: B. Black, tarry stool
Rationale: Melena may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication of
anticoagulation therapy.
5. A patient with increased intracranial pressure is being monitored. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Headache
B. Bradycardia with widening pulse pressure
C. Mild nausea
D. Photophobia
Correct Answer: B. Bradycardia with widening pulse pressure
Rationale: Bradycardia, hypertension with widened pulse pressure, and abnormal respirations
are components of Cushing's response and may indicate worsening intracranial pressure.
6. Which position is generally appropriate for a patient with increased intracranial pressure?
A. Flat with the neck flexed
B. Head of bed elevated with the neck in neutral alignment
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Prone with the neck rotated
Correct Answer: B. Head of bed elevated with the neck in neutral alignment
Rationale: Elevating the head and maintaining neutral neck alignment can promote cerebral
venous drainage and help reduce intracranial pressure.
7. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction suddenly develops pulmonary edema. Which
assessment finding would the nurse expect?
A. Pink, frothy sputum
B. Dry cough only
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Unilateral leg swelling only
, Correct Answer: A. Pink, frothy sputum
Rationale: Acute pulmonary edema from left ventricular failure can cause severe dyspnea and
pink, frothy sputum.
8. Which electrolyte abnormality is most associated with ventricular dysrhythmias?
A. Severe hypokalemia
B. Mild hypernatremia
C. Mild hyperchloremia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct Answer: A. Severe hypokalemia
Rationale: Low potassium levels increase myocardial irritability and can precipitate serious
dysrhythmias.
9. A patient has a potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L and ECG changes. Which medication is used to
stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Sodium chloride
C. Furosemide only
D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer: A. Calcium gluconate
Rationale: IV calcium stabilizes the myocardial membrane during severe hyperkalemia but does
not directly remove potassium from the body.
10. Which ECG finding is commonly associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Peaked T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Shortened PR with delta waves
D. ST elevation in every lead
Correct Answer: A. Peaked T waves
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are an early ECG manifestation of hyperkalemia.
11. A patient develops atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and hypotension.
Which intervention is anticipated?
A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Defibrillation without synchronization
C. Oral potassium only
D. Vagal stimulation as the sole treatment
