COMSAE Phase 1 – Form ASA 114 Complete Test
Bank
EXAM OVERVIEW
Exam: COMSAE Phase 1 – Form ASA 114
Administering Body: National Board of Osteopathic
Medical Examiners (NBOME)
Assessment Type: Comprehensive self-assessment
for COMLEX-USA Level 1 preparation
Format: Secure browser testing
Content Coverage: Foundational biomedical
sciences, osteopathic principles, clinical decision-
1
,making, pharmacology, ethics, and evidence-based
medicine
SECTION 1: CARDIOLOGY &
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM (Questions 1-35)
Question 1
A 58-year-old man develops crushing substernal
chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which coronary
artery is most commonly involved in an anterior
wall myocardial infarction?
A) Right coronary artery
2
,B) Left circumflex artery
C) Left anterior descending artery
D) Posterior descending artery
Answer: C
Rationale: The left anterior descending (LAD) artery
supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle and the
anterior interventricular septum. Occlusion of the
LAD is the most common cause of anterior ST-
elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). This is a
high-yield concept frequently tested on COMLEX-
USA Level 1 and COMSAE assessments .
3
, Question 2
A researcher administers a medication that
selectively inhibits phospholamban within cardiac
myocytes. Which physiologic effect is expected?
A) Decreased calcium uptake into the sarcoplasmic
reticulum
B) Increased SERCA activity
C) Reduced myocardial relaxation
D) Decreased intracellular ATP production
4
Bank
EXAM OVERVIEW
Exam: COMSAE Phase 1 – Form ASA 114
Administering Body: National Board of Osteopathic
Medical Examiners (NBOME)
Assessment Type: Comprehensive self-assessment
for COMLEX-USA Level 1 preparation
Format: Secure browser testing
Content Coverage: Foundational biomedical
sciences, osteopathic principles, clinical decision-
1
,making, pharmacology, ethics, and evidence-based
medicine
SECTION 1: CARDIOLOGY &
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM (Questions 1-35)
Question 1
A 58-year-old man develops crushing substernal
chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which coronary
artery is most commonly involved in an anterior
wall myocardial infarction?
A) Right coronary artery
2
,B) Left circumflex artery
C) Left anterior descending artery
D) Posterior descending artery
Answer: C
Rationale: The left anterior descending (LAD) artery
supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle and the
anterior interventricular septum. Occlusion of the
LAD is the most common cause of anterior ST-
elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). This is a
high-yield concept frequently tested on COMLEX-
USA Level 1 and COMSAE assessments .
3
, Question 2
A researcher administers a medication that
selectively inhibits phospholamban within cardiac
myocytes. Which physiologic effect is expected?
A) Decreased calcium uptake into the sarcoplasmic
reticulum
B) Increased SERCA activity
C) Reduced myocardial relaxation
D) Decreased intracellular ATP production
4
