NR 293 Exam 2 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Pharmacology Q&A |
Nursing Chamberlain University
Question 1
Which of the following best describes the term used for what the body does to a drug,
including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
A) Pharmacodynamics
B) Pharmacotherapeutics
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacognosy
Answer
Answer: C
Rationale
Pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to a drug, specifically involving the processes of
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME). Understanding these principles is
foundational for safe medication administration and predicting patient responses, as it determines the
onset, peak, duration, and intensity of a drug's effect.
Question 2
What is the primary function of an agonist drug when it binds to a receptor site?
A) To block the receptor and prevent a response
B) To bind to the receptor and produce a response
C) To enhance the metabolism of other drugs
D) To increase the excretion of the drug
Answer
Answer: B
Rationale
An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a physiological response. An
antagonist, conversely, binds to a receptor but does not produce a response, instead blocking other
substances from binding. This distinction is crucial for understanding the therapeutic action of various
,medication classes.
Question 3
A researcher is studying a drug that is highly protein-bound (95%). If a second highly protein-
bound drug is added to the patient's regimen, what is the most likely outcome?
A) Decreased effect of the first drug
B) Increased free drug levels and possible toxicity
C) No significant interaction between the drugs
D) Increased renal excretion of both drugs
Answer
Answer: B
Rationale
When two highly protein-bound drugs are administered together, they compete for the same binding
sites on plasma proteins. This competition displaces one drug, increasing its free (unbound)
concentration in the bloodstream, which can lead to exaggerated therapeutic effects or toxicity.
Monitoring for adverse effects is essential in patients on multiple protein-bound medications.
Question 4
Which route of administration has the fastest onset of action for a medication?
A) Oral
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intramuscular
D) Intravenous
Answer
Answer: D
Rationale
Intravenous (IV) administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the
absorption phase entirely and providing the most rapid onset of action. Oral, subcutaneous, and
intramuscular routes require the drug to be absorbed before it can exert its effects, resulting in a
delayed onset. This route is preferred in emergencies when immediate therapeutic effect is needed.
2
,Question 5
According to pharmacokinetic principles, what is the term for the time it takes for one-half of
the original amount of a drug to leave the body?
A) Onset
B) Peak
C) Half-life
D) Duration
Answer
Answer: C
Rationale
Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. This parameter
is essential for determining appropriate dosing intervals and predicting how long a drug will remain
active in the body. Onset refers to the time to first response, peak is the time to maximum effect, and
duration is the length of the therapeutic response.
Question 6
What is the term for the metabolism of an oral drug by the liver before it reaches systemic
circulation, reducing its bioavailability?
A) First-pass effect
B) Protein binding
C) Renal excretion
D) Blood-brain barrier crossing
Answer
Answer: A
Rationale
The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of an oral drug by the liver before it enters the systemic
circulation. This process can significantly reduce the bioavailability of drugs that are extensively
metabolized by the liver, often necessitating higher oral doses or alternative routes of administration to
achieve therapeutic effects.
3
, Question 7
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is a known CYP450 inducer. What effect
will this have on a concurrently administered drug that is metabolized by the same enzyme?
A) Increased serum levels of the concurrent drug
B) Decreased serum levels of the concurrent drug
C) No change in serum levels of the concurrent drug
D) Increased risk of toxicity from the concurrent drug
Answer
Answer: B
Rationale
A CYP450 inducer increases the activity of the enzyme, which accelerates the metabolism of other
drugs that are substrates for that enzyme. This leads to decreased serum levels and reduced
therapeutic effects of the concurrent drug. Nurses must monitor for decreased efficacy and anticipate
potential dosage adjustments.
Question 8
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of a beta-adrenergic blocker such as
metoprolol?
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer
Answer: C
Rationale
Beta-blockers work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, which slows the heart rate and reduces
blood pressure. Bradycardia is a common and expected adverse effect. Nurses must monitor heart
rate and blood pressure before administering these medications and hold the dose if the heart rate is
below a specified threshold (typically 60 beats per minute).
Question 9
4
Nursing Chamberlain University
Question 1
Which of the following best describes the term used for what the body does to a drug,
including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
A) Pharmacodynamics
B) Pharmacotherapeutics
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacognosy
Answer
Answer: C
Rationale
Pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to a drug, specifically involving the processes of
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME). Understanding these principles is
foundational for safe medication administration and predicting patient responses, as it determines the
onset, peak, duration, and intensity of a drug's effect.
Question 2
What is the primary function of an agonist drug when it binds to a receptor site?
A) To block the receptor and prevent a response
B) To bind to the receptor and produce a response
C) To enhance the metabolism of other drugs
D) To increase the excretion of the drug
Answer
Answer: B
Rationale
An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a physiological response. An
antagonist, conversely, binds to a receptor but does not produce a response, instead blocking other
substances from binding. This distinction is crucial for understanding the therapeutic action of various
,medication classes.
Question 3
A researcher is studying a drug that is highly protein-bound (95%). If a second highly protein-
bound drug is added to the patient's regimen, what is the most likely outcome?
A) Decreased effect of the first drug
B) Increased free drug levels and possible toxicity
C) No significant interaction between the drugs
D) Increased renal excretion of both drugs
Answer
Answer: B
Rationale
When two highly protein-bound drugs are administered together, they compete for the same binding
sites on plasma proteins. This competition displaces one drug, increasing its free (unbound)
concentration in the bloodstream, which can lead to exaggerated therapeutic effects or toxicity.
Monitoring for adverse effects is essential in patients on multiple protein-bound medications.
Question 4
Which route of administration has the fastest onset of action for a medication?
A) Oral
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intramuscular
D) Intravenous
Answer
Answer: D
Rationale
Intravenous (IV) administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the
absorption phase entirely and providing the most rapid onset of action. Oral, subcutaneous, and
intramuscular routes require the drug to be absorbed before it can exert its effects, resulting in a
delayed onset. This route is preferred in emergencies when immediate therapeutic effect is needed.
2
,Question 5
According to pharmacokinetic principles, what is the term for the time it takes for one-half of
the original amount of a drug to leave the body?
A) Onset
B) Peak
C) Half-life
D) Duration
Answer
Answer: C
Rationale
Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. This parameter
is essential for determining appropriate dosing intervals and predicting how long a drug will remain
active in the body. Onset refers to the time to first response, peak is the time to maximum effect, and
duration is the length of the therapeutic response.
Question 6
What is the term for the metabolism of an oral drug by the liver before it reaches systemic
circulation, reducing its bioavailability?
A) First-pass effect
B) Protein binding
C) Renal excretion
D) Blood-brain barrier crossing
Answer
Answer: A
Rationale
The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of an oral drug by the liver before it enters the systemic
circulation. This process can significantly reduce the bioavailability of drugs that are extensively
metabolized by the liver, often necessitating higher oral doses or alternative routes of administration to
achieve therapeutic effects.
3
, Question 7
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is a known CYP450 inducer. What effect
will this have on a concurrently administered drug that is metabolized by the same enzyme?
A) Increased serum levels of the concurrent drug
B) Decreased serum levels of the concurrent drug
C) No change in serum levels of the concurrent drug
D) Increased risk of toxicity from the concurrent drug
Answer
Answer: B
Rationale
A CYP450 inducer increases the activity of the enzyme, which accelerates the metabolism of other
drugs that are substrates for that enzyme. This leads to decreased serum levels and reduced
therapeutic effects of the concurrent drug. Nurses must monitor for decreased efficacy and anticipate
potential dosage adjustments.
Question 8
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of a beta-adrenergic blocker such as
metoprolol?
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer
Answer: C
Rationale
Beta-blockers work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, which slows the heart rate and reduces
blood pressure. Bradycardia is a common and expected adverse effect. Nurses must monitor heart
rate and blood pressure before administering these medications and hold the dose if the heart rate is
below a specified threshold (typically 60 beats per minute).
Question 9
4
