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NU 170 Exam 3 Maternal-Child Nursing Study
Guide Galen College Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed
Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Part I: Antepartum & Intrapartum Care (Questions 1-15)
Q1: A 28-year-old G1P0 at 32 weeks gestation presents to
prenatal clinic for routine visit. Her blood pressure today is
148/92 mmHg, up from her baseline of 118/74 at previous visits.
She reports occasional headaches but denies visual changes or
epigastric pain. Urine dipstick shows 1+ protein. Which finding
is most concerning for developing preeclampsia?
A. Blood pressure elevation alone without other symptoms
B. Headache in the absence of visual disturbances
C. New-onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks
D. 1+ proteinuria on a single urine dipstick
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because preeclampsia is defined
as new-onset hypertension (BP ≥140/90) combined with
proteinuria occurring after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously
normotensive patient. This matches the classic diagnostic
,2
criteria taught in the NU 170 maternal-child curriculum. While
isolated BP elevation (A) needs monitoring, it doesn't meet full
criteria. Headaches alone (B) are nonspecific, and a single
proteinuria reading (D) requires confirmation.
Q2: The labor and delivery nurse is reviewing the fetal heart rate
tracing for a patient at 38 weeks in active labor. The baseline
FHR is 145 bpm with moderate variability. The nurse observes
repetitive decelerations that mirror the shape of the contractions,
with the nadir of the deceleration occurring at the peak of each
contraction. How should the nurse document this pattern?
A. Early decelerations – head compression
B. Variable decelerations – cord compression
C. Late decelerations – uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Prolonged deceleration – possible cord prolapse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because early decelerations are
characterized by their mirror-image relationship to contractions,
with the lowest point (nadir) coinciding with the contraction
peak, and they're caused by fetal head compression during
descent—this is a normal finding in active labor. Late
decelerations (C) would have their nadir after the contraction
peaks, indicating placental insufficiency, which is much more
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concerning. Variable decelerations (B) have an abrupt onset and
variable shape from cord compression.
Q3: A pregnant patient at 28 weeks asks the nurse about the
glucose tolerance test she has scheduled. She wants to know
why this test is recommended. What is the primary purpose of
the 1-hour glucose challenge test performed between 24-28
weeks gestation?
A. To diagnose pre-existing type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. To screen for gestational diabetes mellitus
C. To monitor fetal growth related to maternal glucose levels
D. To assess the mother's risk for developing preeclampsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because the 1-hour glucose
challenge test (GCT) is a screening tool used to identify women
at risk for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). If the result is
elevated (typically ≥140 mg/dL), a diagnostic 3-hour OGTT
follows. This is standard prenatal screening per ACOG
guidelines and core NU 170 content. Option A refers to testing
done earlier in pregnancy for pre-existing diabetes, not the
routine GDM screen.
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Q4: A 34-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks arrives at L&D reporting
sudden, severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding.
Her BP is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 112 bpm, and the fundus feels
firm and tender to palpation. The fetal heart rate shows late
decelerations. Which complication does this presentation most
strongly suggest?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Normal labor with "bloody show"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because the classic triad of
painful vaginal bleeding (often dark red), a firm/tender uterus,
and signs of maternal-fetal distress (tachycardia, late
decelerations) is pathognomonic for placental abruption
(abruptio placentae). Placenta previa (A) typically presents with
painless, bright red bleeding and a soft, non-tender uterus.
Uterine rupture (C) usually involves loss of fetal station and may
show changes in contraction pattern. Bloody show (D) is
minimal, pink-tinged mucus—not dark red bleeding with these
vital sign changes.
NU 170 Exam 3 Maternal-Child Nursing Study
Guide Galen College Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed
Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Part I: Antepartum & Intrapartum Care (Questions 1-15)
Q1: A 28-year-old G1P0 at 32 weeks gestation presents to
prenatal clinic for routine visit. Her blood pressure today is
148/92 mmHg, up from her baseline of 118/74 at previous visits.
She reports occasional headaches but denies visual changes or
epigastric pain. Urine dipstick shows 1+ protein. Which finding
is most concerning for developing preeclampsia?
A. Blood pressure elevation alone without other symptoms
B. Headache in the absence of visual disturbances
C. New-onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks
D. 1+ proteinuria on a single urine dipstick
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because preeclampsia is defined
as new-onset hypertension (BP ≥140/90) combined with
proteinuria occurring after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously
normotensive patient. This matches the classic diagnostic
,2
criteria taught in the NU 170 maternal-child curriculum. While
isolated BP elevation (A) needs monitoring, it doesn't meet full
criteria. Headaches alone (B) are nonspecific, and a single
proteinuria reading (D) requires confirmation.
Q2: The labor and delivery nurse is reviewing the fetal heart rate
tracing for a patient at 38 weeks in active labor. The baseline
FHR is 145 bpm with moderate variability. The nurse observes
repetitive decelerations that mirror the shape of the contractions,
with the nadir of the deceleration occurring at the peak of each
contraction. How should the nurse document this pattern?
A. Early decelerations – head compression
B. Variable decelerations – cord compression
C. Late decelerations – uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Prolonged deceleration – possible cord prolapse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because early decelerations are
characterized by their mirror-image relationship to contractions,
with the lowest point (nadir) coinciding with the contraction
peak, and they're caused by fetal head compression during
descent—this is a normal finding in active labor. Late
decelerations (C) would have their nadir after the contraction
peaks, indicating placental insufficiency, which is much more
,3
concerning. Variable decelerations (B) have an abrupt onset and
variable shape from cord compression.
Q3: A pregnant patient at 28 weeks asks the nurse about the
glucose tolerance test she has scheduled. She wants to know
why this test is recommended. What is the primary purpose of
the 1-hour glucose challenge test performed between 24-28
weeks gestation?
A. To diagnose pre-existing type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. To screen for gestational diabetes mellitus
C. To monitor fetal growth related to maternal glucose levels
D. To assess the mother's risk for developing preeclampsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because the 1-hour glucose
challenge test (GCT) is a screening tool used to identify women
at risk for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). If the result is
elevated (typically ≥140 mg/dL), a diagnostic 3-hour OGTT
follows. This is standard prenatal screening per ACOG
guidelines and core NU 170 content. Option A refers to testing
done earlier in pregnancy for pre-existing diabetes, not the
routine GDM screen.
, 4
Q4: A 34-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks arrives at L&D reporting
sudden, severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding.
Her BP is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 112 bpm, and the fundus feels
firm and tender to palpation. The fetal heart rate shows late
decelerations. Which complication does this presentation most
strongly suggest?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Normal labor with "bloody show"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because the classic triad of
painful vaginal bleeding (often dark red), a firm/tender uterus,
and signs of maternal-fetal distress (tachycardia, late
decelerations) is pathognomonic for placental abruption
(abruptio placentae). Placenta previa (A) typically presents with
painless, bright red bleeding and a soft, non-tender uterus.
Uterine rupture (C) usually involves loss of fetal station and may
show changes in contraction pattern. Bloody show (D) is
minimal, pink-tinged mucus—not dark red bleeding with these
vital sign changes.
