NURS 6202 MIDTERM EXAM / APPROVED NURS 6202 ACTUAL
MIDTERM EXAM 2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE
COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM
1. A patient is admitted with prolonged tissue hypoxia caused by severe
hypotension. The nurse understands that inadequate oxygen delivery can
impair mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and reduce cellular energy
production. Which cellular change is most likely to occur first as ATP levels
decline?
A. Increased intracellular sodium with cellular swelling
B. Increased protein synthesis
C. Enhanced oxidative phosphorylation
D. Increased intracellular potassium
Answer: A
2. A patient experiences transient renal ischemia that is rapidly corrected
before permanent membrane damage develops. Which cellular response
best describes the expected injury?
A. Complete nuclear dissolution
B. Reversible cellular injury with swelling and fatty change
C. Extensive membrane rupture
D. Irreversible mitochondrial destruction
Answer: B
3. A patient with prolonged myocardial ischemia develops irreversible cellular
damage. Which finding most strongly indicates that the injury has
progressed beyond the reversible stage?
A. Mild cellular swelling
B. Reduced protein synthesis
C. Severe membrane disruption with nuclear fragmentation
D. Temporary fatty accumulation
Answer: C
pg. 1
, 4. A patient develops tissue necrosis following prolonged ischemia. Which
mechanism best explains coagulative necrosis in an ischemic solid organ?
A. Enzymatic digestion of all tissue immediately
B. Accumulation of intracellular lipids without protein denaturation
C. Programmed removal of individual cells
D. Denaturation of structural proteins with preservation of tissue
architecture for a period of time
Answer: D
5. A patient has a localized area of tissue injury in which cells undergo
shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and fragmentation without provoking
substantial inflammation. Which process is occurring?
A. Apoptosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Gangrene
Answer: A
6. A patient develops a cerebral infarction after interruption of cerebral blood
flow. Which form of necrosis is classically associated with infarction of brain
tissue?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: B
7. A patient with pancreatitis develops destruction of surrounding adipose
tissue. Which type of necrosis is associated with enzymatic destruction of
fat and formation of calcium-containing soaps?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
pg. 2
, C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
Answer: C
8. A patient with chronic granulomatous infection develops areas of soft,
cheese-like tissue within a lymph node. Which type of necrosis is most
characteristic of this process?
A. Fat necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
Answer: D
9. A patient has a genetic disorder caused by a permanent alteration in the
DNA sequence of a gene. Which statement best explains how this alteration
can produce disease?
A. The mutation can alter the structure or amount of a protein and disrupt
normal cellular function
B. Genetic mutations always increase cellular energy production
C. Every mutation necessarily produces cancer
D. Genetic mutations affect only mitochondrial DNA
Answer: A
10. A patient is diagnosed with a disease inherited through an autosomal
dominant pattern. One parent is heterozygous for the disease-causing allele
and the other parent does not carry the allele. What is the expected
probability that each pregnancy will inherit the disease-causing allele?
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: B
pg. 3
, 11. A patient has an autosomal recessive disorder and both parents are known
heterozygous carriers. Which probability describes the chance that a child
will be affected by the disorder in each pregnancy?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Answer: B
12. A patient has a condition in which the phenotype is expressed differently
depending on whether the disease-associated allele was inherited from the
mother or father. Which genetic phenomenon is most consistent with this
description?
A. Anticipation
B. Codominance
C. Genomic imprinting
D. Penetrance
Answer: C
13. A patient with chronic inflammation has persistent activation of immune
cells and continued production of inflammatory mediators. Which long-
term consequence is most likely if the inflammatory stimulus remains
untreated?
A. Complete tissue regeneration without structural change
B. Elimination of all immune activity
C. Permanent suppression of cytokine production
D. Ongoing tissue injury with fibrosis and remodeling
Answer: D
14. A patient sustains a minor tissue injury, and the affected area becomes red,
warm, swollen, and painful. Which mediator is primarily responsible for
early vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?
A. Histamine
pg. 4
MIDTERM EXAM 2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE
COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM
1. A patient is admitted with prolonged tissue hypoxia caused by severe
hypotension. The nurse understands that inadequate oxygen delivery can
impair mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and reduce cellular energy
production. Which cellular change is most likely to occur first as ATP levels
decline?
A. Increased intracellular sodium with cellular swelling
B. Increased protein synthesis
C. Enhanced oxidative phosphorylation
D. Increased intracellular potassium
Answer: A
2. A patient experiences transient renal ischemia that is rapidly corrected
before permanent membrane damage develops. Which cellular response
best describes the expected injury?
A. Complete nuclear dissolution
B. Reversible cellular injury with swelling and fatty change
C. Extensive membrane rupture
D. Irreversible mitochondrial destruction
Answer: B
3. A patient with prolonged myocardial ischemia develops irreversible cellular
damage. Which finding most strongly indicates that the injury has
progressed beyond the reversible stage?
A. Mild cellular swelling
B. Reduced protein synthesis
C. Severe membrane disruption with nuclear fragmentation
D. Temporary fatty accumulation
Answer: C
pg. 1
, 4. A patient develops tissue necrosis following prolonged ischemia. Which
mechanism best explains coagulative necrosis in an ischemic solid organ?
A. Enzymatic digestion of all tissue immediately
B. Accumulation of intracellular lipids without protein denaturation
C. Programmed removal of individual cells
D. Denaturation of structural proteins with preservation of tissue
architecture for a period of time
Answer: D
5. A patient has a localized area of tissue injury in which cells undergo
shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and fragmentation without provoking
substantial inflammation. Which process is occurring?
A. Apoptosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Gangrene
Answer: A
6. A patient develops a cerebral infarction after interruption of cerebral blood
flow. Which form of necrosis is classically associated with infarction of brain
tissue?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: B
7. A patient with pancreatitis develops destruction of surrounding adipose
tissue. Which type of necrosis is associated with enzymatic destruction of
fat and formation of calcium-containing soaps?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
pg. 2
, C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
Answer: C
8. A patient with chronic granulomatous infection develops areas of soft,
cheese-like tissue within a lymph node. Which type of necrosis is most
characteristic of this process?
A. Fat necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
Answer: D
9. A patient has a genetic disorder caused by a permanent alteration in the
DNA sequence of a gene. Which statement best explains how this alteration
can produce disease?
A. The mutation can alter the structure or amount of a protein and disrupt
normal cellular function
B. Genetic mutations always increase cellular energy production
C. Every mutation necessarily produces cancer
D. Genetic mutations affect only mitochondrial DNA
Answer: A
10. A patient is diagnosed with a disease inherited through an autosomal
dominant pattern. One parent is heterozygous for the disease-causing allele
and the other parent does not carry the allele. What is the expected
probability that each pregnancy will inherit the disease-causing allele?
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: B
pg. 3
, 11. A patient has an autosomal recessive disorder and both parents are known
heterozygous carriers. Which probability describes the chance that a child
will be affected by the disorder in each pregnancy?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Answer: B
12. A patient has a condition in which the phenotype is expressed differently
depending on whether the disease-associated allele was inherited from the
mother or father. Which genetic phenomenon is most consistent with this
description?
A. Anticipation
B. Codominance
C. Genomic imprinting
D. Penetrance
Answer: C
13. A patient with chronic inflammation has persistent activation of immune
cells and continued production of inflammatory mediators. Which long-
term consequence is most likely if the inflammatory stimulus remains
untreated?
A. Complete tissue regeneration without structural change
B. Elimination of all immune activity
C. Permanent suppression of cytokine production
D. Ongoing tissue injury with fibrosis and remodeling
Answer: D
14. A patient sustains a minor tissue injury, and the affected area becomes red,
warm, swollen, and painful. Which mediator is primarily responsible for
early vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?
A. Histamine
pg. 4
