NSG 6020 3P EXAM VERSION 2 – 300 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE DETAILED ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS AND DETAILED RATIONALES - THE ULTIMATE
STUDY GUIDE FOR GUARANTEED PASS
1. A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which medication should
the nurse teach the patient to avoid because it decreases digoxin levels?
A. Antacids
B. Acetaminophen
C. Vitamin C
D. Iron supplements
Answer: A
Rationale: Antacids decrease the absorption of digoxin, leading to decreased
serum digoxin levels. Patients should separate antacid administration from
digoxin by at least 2 hours.
2. A patient taking Pyridium for a urinary tract infection should be monitored
for which adverse effect?
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Cardiotoxicity
Answer: A
Rationale: Pyridium (phenazopyridine) can cause hemolytic anemia, especially
with prolonged use. It should not be used for more than 3 days.
,3. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is at risk for developing
which condition?
A. Increased insulin levels and androgens
B. Decreased insulin levels and androgens
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: PCOS results in increased insulin levels (hyperinsulinemia) and
elevated androgens, leading to hirsutism, acne, and ovulatory dysfunction.
4. Which antihypertensive medication is considered safe for use during
pregnancy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Methyldopa
C. Losartan
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: B
Rationale: Methyldopa is the preferred antihypertensive in pregnancy. ACE
inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated due to fetal renal damage.
5. A nurse is assessing a patient with placenta previa. Which finding is
characteristic of this condition?
,A. Painful dark red bleeding
B. Painless bright red bleeding
C. Board-like uterus
D. Absent fetal heart tones
Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
in the third trimester. Abruptio placentae presents with painful bleeding and a
rigid uterus.
6. Which finding is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Bony hard joints
B. Red, hot, swollen joints
C. Heberden nodes
D. Asymmetric joint involvement
Answer: B
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis presents with red, hot, swollen joints due to
inflammation. Osteoarthritis presents with bony hard joints and Heberden
nodes.
, 7. Which medications are known to cause ototoxicity?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Acetaminophen
C. Vitamin B12
D. Calcium channel blockers
Answer: A
Rationale: Aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, quinine, and aspirin are associated
with ototoxicity. Patients should be monitored for hearing loss and tinnitus.
8. What is the treatment duration for enterobiasis (pinworm infection)?
A. 2 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
Answer: A
Rationale: Enterobiasis is treated with two doses of medication given 2 weeks
apart. Pyrantel pamoate is commonly used, and retesting is done 2 weeks
after treatment.
QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE DETAILED ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS AND DETAILED RATIONALES - THE ULTIMATE
STUDY GUIDE FOR GUARANTEED PASS
1. A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which medication should
the nurse teach the patient to avoid because it decreases digoxin levels?
A. Antacids
B. Acetaminophen
C. Vitamin C
D. Iron supplements
Answer: A
Rationale: Antacids decrease the absorption of digoxin, leading to decreased
serum digoxin levels. Patients should separate antacid administration from
digoxin by at least 2 hours.
2. A patient taking Pyridium for a urinary tract infection should be monitored
for which adverse effect?
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Cardiotoxicity
Answer: A
Rationale: Pyridium (phenazopyridine) can cause hemolytic anemia, especially
with prolonged use. It should not be used for more than 3 days.
,3. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is at risk for developing
which condition?
A. Increased insulin levels and androgens
B. Decreased insulin levels and androgens
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: PCOS results in increased insulin levels (hyperinsulinemia) and
elevated androgens, leading to hirsutism, acne, and ovulatory dysfunction.
4. Which antihypertensive medication is considered safe for use during
pregnancy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Methyldopa
C. Losartan
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: B
Rationale: Methyldopa is the preferred antihypertensive in pregnancy. ACE
inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated due to fetal renal damage.
5. A nurse is assessing a patient with placenta previa. Which finding is
characteristic of this condition?
,A. Painful dark red bleeding
B. Painless bright red bleeding
C. Board-like uterus
D. Absent fetal heart tones
Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
in the third trimester. Abruptio placentae presents with painful bleeding and a
rigid uterus.
6. Which finding is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Bony hard joints
B. Red, hot, swollen joints
C. Heberden nodes
D. Asymmetric joint involvement
Answer: B
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis presents with red, hot, swollen joints due to
inflammation. Osteoarthritis presents with bony hard joints and Heberden
nodes.
, 7. Which medications are known to cause ototoxicity?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Acetaminophen
C. Vitamin B12
D. Calcium channel blockers
Answer: A
Rationale: Aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, quinine, and aspirin are associated
with ototoxicity. Patients should be monitored for hearing loss and tinnitus.
8. What is the treatment duration for enterobiasis (pinworm infection)?
A. 2 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
Answer: A
Rationale: Enterobiasis is treated with two doses of medication given 2 weeks
apart. Pyrantel pamoate is commonly used, and retesting is done 2 weeks
after treatment.
