NUR 2356: MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE
II COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |GRADE A+|
JUST RELEASED
1. A patient is admitted with a pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 55 mmHg, and HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is the patient experiencing?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. The elevated PaCO2 (>45)
indicates a respiratory cause, while the normal HCO3 shows no compensation yet.
2. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect in a patient with a serum potassium
level of 6.2 mEq/L?
A. Polyuria and polydipsia
B. Prominent U waves on EKG
C. Increased deep tendon reflexes
,D. Tall, peaked T waves on EKG
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.0) causes cardiac excitability changes,
most notably tall, peaked T waves. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient with Right-sided Heart Failure. Which assessment finding is
most characteristic of this condition?
A. Pulmonary crackles
B. Jugular Venous Distention (JVD)
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Orthopnea
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic venous congestion,
evidenced by JVD, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. Pulmonary symptoms are typical
of left-sided failure.
4. What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction after
receiving an IV antibiotic?
A. Stop the antibiotic infusion immediately
B. Apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
C. Administer intramuscular epinephrine
, D. Auscultate lung sounds for wheezing
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The first priority in any transfusion or medication reaction is to
remove the causative agent. Following this, the nurse should assess the airway and prepare
for epinephrine.
5. A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen. Why
must the nurse exercise caution with high-flow oxygen delivery?
A. It causes oxygen toxicity and lung scarring
B. It may suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe
C. It leads to metabolic alkalosis
D. It increases the risk of spontaneous pneumothorax
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: In chronic CO2 retainers, the stimulus to breathe shifts from
high CO2 to low O2 (hypoxic drive). Excessive oxygen can negate this stimulus, causing
respiratory depression.
6. A patient is diagnosed with Graves’ disease. Which finding should the nurse report to the
provider immediately?
A. Exophthalmos
B. Heat intolerance
II COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |GRADE A+|
JUST RELEASED
1. A patient is admitted with a pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 55 mmHg, and HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is the patient experiencing?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. The elevated PaCO2 (>45)
indicates a respiratory cause, while the normal HCO3 shows no compensation yet.
2. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect in a patient with a serum potassium
level of 6.2 mEq/L?
A. Polyuria and polydipsia
B. Prominent U waves on EKG
C. Increased deep tendon reflexes
,D. Tall, peaked T waves on EKG
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.0) causes cardiac excitability changes,
most notably tall, peaked T waves. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient with Right-sided Heart Failure. Which assessment finding is
most characteristic of this condition?
A. Pulmonary crackles
B. Jugular Venous Distention (JVD)
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Orthopnea
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic venous congestion,
evidenced by JVD, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. Pulmonary symptoms are typical
of left-sided failure.
4. What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction after
receiving an IV antibiotic?
A. Stop the antibiotic infusion immediately
B. Apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
C. Administer intramuscular epinephrine
, D. Auscultate lung sounds for wheezing
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The first priority in any transfusion or medication reaction is to
remove the causative agent. Following this, the nurse should assess the airway and prepare
for epinephrine.
5. A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen. Why
must the nurse exercise caution with high-flow oxygen delivery?
A. It causes oxygen toxicity and lung scarring
B. It may suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe
C. It leads to metabolic alkalosis
D. It increases the risk of spontaneous pneumothorax
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: In chronic CO2 retainers, the stimulus to breathe shifts from
high CO2 to low O2 (hypoxic drive). Excessive oxygen can negate this stimulus, causing
respiratory depression.
6. A patient is diagnosed with Graves’ disease. Which finding should the nurse report to the
provider immediately?
A. Exophthalmos
B. Heat intolerance
