CNOR Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027
Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Preoperative Patient Assessment and Preparation
Q1: A patient scheduled for a total knee arthroplasty mentions they took their daily aspirin
this morning. What is the nurse's best initial action?
A. Proceed with surgery as aspirin is no longer a contraindication.
B. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Document the finding and reassess after surgery.
D. Administer vitamin K to reverse the aspirin's effects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist immediately, as
aspirin increases bleeding risk and the surgical team must decide whether to proceed or
delay.
Q2: During the preoperative interview, a patient states, "I don't really understand why I
need this surgery." What is the priority nursing action?
A. Explain the surgical procedure in detail using anatomical models.
B. Document the patient's statement and proceed with the checklist.
C. Notify the surgeon that the patient's informed consent may be invalid. [CORRECT]
D. Ask the patient's family to explain the procedure to them.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because the surgeon is responsible for ensuring the patient
understands the procedure and obtains valid informed consent before the nurse witnesses
the signature.
Q3: A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy. Which
action is most critical during preoperative preparation?
A. Schedule the case as the first procedure of the day. [CORRECT]
B. Use only powder-free latex gloves for the patient's IV insertion.
C. Administer prophylactic diphenhydramine before entering the OR.
D. Ensure the patient wears a medical alert bracelet to the OR.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that scheduling the patient as the first case of the
day minimizes exposure to airborne latex particles that may have settled in the room from
previous cases.
Q4: Which preoperative laboratory result requires immediate notification of the surgical
team for a patient undergoing major abdominal surgery?
A. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
,B. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L [CORRECT]
C. White blood cell count 9,000/mm³
D. Fasting blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that hypokalemia increases the risk of intraoperative
cardiac arrhythmias, especially when certain anesthetic agents are used, requiring prompt
evaluation.
Q5: A patient reports taking kava kava supplements daily for anxiety. What is the primary
concern for the perioperative nurse?
A. Increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting.
B. Potentiation of anesthetic agents and prolonged sedation. [CORRECT]
C. Increased bleeding tendency during the procedure.
D. Severe hypertensive crisis when combined with epinephrine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is that kava kava can potentiate the effects of sedatives and
anesthetics, leading to prolonged or unpredictable sedation levels.
Q6: When verifying a patient's NPO status, which statement by the patient requires further
investigation?
A. "I had a small sip of water with my blood pressure medication at 5 AM."
B. "I chewed a piece of sugar-free gum at 6 AM to help my dry mouth." [CORRECT]
C. "I stopped eating solid foods after midnight last night."
D. "I had a clear apple juice at 4 AM, and it is now 8 AM."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because chewing gum stimulates gastric secretions and is
generally not permitted under strict NPO guidelines, potentially increasing aspiration risk.
Q7: A patient's preoperative assessment reveals a history of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
What is the most important intervention to include in the plan of care?
A. Administer a higher dose of preoperative anxiolytics.
B. Plan for the patient to be discharged directly home from the PACU.
C. Ensure the patient brings their CPAP machine to the hospital. [CORRECT]
D. Position the patient supine with the head of the bed flat postoperatively.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with best practices that patients with OSA should use their own CPAP
machine in the PACU and on the medical-surgical unit to maintain airway patency.
Q8: Which finding during the preoperative physical assessment is most concerning for a
patient scheduled for elective surgery?
A. A mild, non-productive cough lasting two days.
B. A temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C). [CORRECT]
C. A healed surgical scar from a previous appendectomy.
D. Blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg.
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The best answer is a temperature of 100.8°F, as it may indicate an active
underlying infection, which could increase the risk of postoperative complications and
warrant postponing elective surgery.
Q9: A patient expresses fear about waking up during surgery. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "That is very rare, so you do not need to worry about it."
B. "The anesthesiologist will monitor you closely to ensure you stay asleep." [CORRECT]
C. "We can give you extra medication so you won't remember anything."
D. "You should discuss this with your surgeon before the procedure."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because it provides honest reassurance that the anesthesia
provider continuously monitors the patient's depth of anesthesia to prevent awareness.
Q10: Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching regarding preoperative
skin preparation?
A. "I will shower with the provided chlorhexidine soap tonight and tomorrow morning."
B. "I can shave the surgical site myself tonight to save time in the morning." [CORRECT]
C. "I should remove all nail polish and jewelry before coming to the hospital."
D. "I will not apply any lotions or perfumes on the day of surgery."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that patients should never shave the surgical site
themselves, as it causes micro-abrasions that significantly increase the risk of surgical site
infections.
Q11: A patient with diabetes is scheduled for morning surgery. How should their morning
insulin dose be managed?
A. Administer the full usual dose to prevent hyperglycemia.
B. Hold all insulin doses until after the surgery is complete.
C. Follow the specific provider's order, which often involves a reduced dose. [CORRECT]
D. Give oral hypoglycemic agents with a sip of water instead.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is to follow the specific provider's order, as NPO status alters
glucose needs, and a reduced dose of intermediate- or long-acting insulin is commonly
prescribed to prevent hypoglycemia.
Q12: During the preoperative assessment, the nurse notes the patient has a pacemaker.
What is the essential preoperative action?
A. Ensure a magnet is available in the OR. [CORRECT]
B. Schedule the surgery for a room without electrocautery capabilities.
C. Instruct the patient to turn off the pacemaker before surgery.
D. Obtain a cardiology consult for every patient with a pacemaker.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because a magnet may be needed to convert the
pacemaker to an asynchronous mode if electromagnetic interference from surgical
equipment occurs.
Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Preoperative Patient Assessment and Preparation
Q1: A patient scheduled for a total knee arthroplasty mentions they took their daily aspirin
this morning. What is the nurse's best initial action?
A. Proceed with surgery as aspirin is no longer a contraindication.
B. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Document the finding and reassess after surgery.
D. Administer vitamin K to reverse the aspirin's effects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist immediately, as
aspirin increases bleeding risk and the surgical team must decide whether to proceed or
delay.
Q2: During the preoperative interview, a patient states, "I don't really understand why I
need this surgery." What is the priority nursing action?
A. Explain the surgical procedure in detail using anatomical models.
B. Document the patient's statement and proceed with the checklist.
C. Notify the surgeon that the patient's informed consent may be invalid. [CORRECT]
D. Ask the patient's family to explain the procedure to them.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because the surgeon is responsible for ensuring the patient
understands the procedure and obtains valid informed consent before the nurse witnesses
the signature.
Q3: A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy. Which
action is most critical during preoperative preparation?
A. Schedule the case as the first procedure of the day. [CORRECT]
B. Use only powder-free latex gloves for the patient's IV insertion.
C. Administer prophylactic diphenhydramine before entering the OR.
D. Ensure the patient wears a medical alert bracelet to the OR.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that scheduling the patient as the first case of the
day minimizes exposure to airborne latex particles that may have settled in the room from
previous cases.
Q4: Which preoperative laboratory result requires immediate notification of the surgical
team for a patient undergoing major abdominal surgery?
A. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
,B. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L [CORRECT]
C. White blood cell count 9,000/mm³
D. Fasting blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that hypokalemia increases the risk of intraoperative
cardiac arrhythmias, especially when certain anesthetic agents are used, requiring prompt
evaluation.
Q5: A patient reports taking kava kava supplements daily for anxiety. What is the primary
concern for the perioperative nurse?
A. Increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting.
B. Potentiation of anesthetic agents and prolonged sedation. [CORRECT]
C. Increased bleeding tendency during the procedure.
D. Severe hypertensive crisis when combined with epinephrine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is that kava kava can potentiate the effects of sedatives and
anesthetics, leading to prolonged or unpredictable sedation levels.
Q6: When verifying a patient's NPO status, which statement by the patient requires further
investigation?
A. "I had a small sip of water with my blood pressure medication at 5 AM."
B. "I chewed a piece of sugar-free gum at 6 AM to help my dry mouth." [CORRECT]
C. "I stopped eating solid foods after midnight last night."
D. "I had a clear apple juice at 4 AM, and it is now 8 AM."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because chewing gum stimulates gastric secretions and is
generally not permitted under strict NPO guidelines, potentially increasing aspiration risk.
Q7: A patient's preoperative assessment reveals a history of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
What is the most important intervention to include in the plan of care?
A. Administer a higher dose of preoperative anxiolytics.
B. Plan for the patient to be discharged directly home from the PACU.
C. Ensure the patient brings their CPAP machine to the hospital. [CORRECT]
D. Position the patient supine with the head of the bed flat postoperatively.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with best practices that patients with OSA should use their own CPAP
machine in the PACU and on the medical-surgical unit to maintain airway patency.
Q8: Which finding during the preoperative physical assessment is most concerning for a
patient scheduled for elective surgery?
A. A mild, non-productive cough lasting two days.
B. A temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C). [CORRECT]
C. A healed surgical scar from a previous appendectomy.
D. Blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg.
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The best answer is a temperature of 100.8°F, as it may indicate an active
underlying infection, which could increase the risk of postoperative complications and
warrant postponing elective surgery.
Q9: A patient expresses fear about waking up during surgery. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "That is very rare, so you do not need to worry about it."
B. "The anesthesiologist will monitor you closely to ensure you stay asleep." [CORRECT]
C. "We can give you extra medication so you won't remember anything."
D. "You should discuss this with your surgeon before the procedure."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because it provides honest reassurance that the anesthesia
provider continuously monitors the patient's depth of anesthesia to prevent awareness.
Q10: Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching regarding preoperative
skin preparation?
A. "I will shower with the provided chlorhexidine soap tonight and tomorrow morning."
B. "I can shave the surgical site myself tonight to save time in the morning." [CORRECT]
C. "I should remove all nail polish and jewelry before coming to the hospital."
D. "I will not apply any lotions or perfumes on the day of surgery."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that patients should never shave the surgical site
themselves, as it causes micro-abrasions that significantly increase the risk of surgical site
infections.
Q11: A patient with diabetes is scheduled for morning surgery. How should their morning
insulin dose be managed?
A. Administer the full usual dose to prevent hyperglycemia.
B. Hold all insulin doses until after the surgery is complete.
C. Follow the specific provider's order, which often involves a reduced dose. [CORRECT]
D. Give oral hypoglycemic agents with a sip of water instead.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is to follow the specific provider's order, as NPO status alters
glucose needs, and a reduced dose of intermediate- or long-acting insulin is commonly
prescribed to prevent hypoglycemia.
Q12: During the preoperative assessment, the nurse notes the patient has a pacemaker.
What is the essential preoperative action?
A. Ensure a magnet is available in the OR. [CORRECT]
B. Schedule the surgery for a room without electrocautery capabilities.
C. Instruct the patient to turn off the pacemaker before surgery.
D. Obtain a cardiology consult for every patient with a pacemaker.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because a magnet may be needed to convert the
pacemaker to an asynchronous mode if electromagnetic interference from surgical
equipment occurs.
