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NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exam 2 Review 2026/2027 – Questions & Answers | Galen College Guaranteed Pass (GRADED A+)

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Prepare for Galen College NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exam 2 with a comprehensive collection of practice questions, answers, and detailed rationales covering key pharmacology concepts. This study resource is designed to reinforce medication principles, drug classifications, adverse effects, nursing considerations, and safe medication administration. Ideal for nursing students preparing for NUR 210 Exam 2 and looking for an organized 2026/2027 pharmacology review resource. 6 Google Tags

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NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology
Exam 2 Review 2026/2027 – Questions
& Answers | Galen College Guaranteed
Pass (GRADED A+)
Question 1
A nurse is administering digoxin to a patient with heart failure.
Which assessment finding should be reported before
administering the medication?
A. Blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg
B. Apical pulse of 54 beats/minute
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute
D. Temperature of 98.6°F (37°C)
Answer: B. Apical pulse of 54 beats/minute
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An apical pulse
below 60 beats/minute should be reported before administration
because it may indicate increased risk of toxicity.
Question 2
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely in a
patient receiving furosemide?
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
Answer: C. Potassium

,Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes
potassium loss, increasing the risk of hypokalemia and cardiac
dysrhythmias.
Question 3
A patient taking warfarin should be instructed to report which
finding immediately?
A. Mild headache
B. Occasional fatigue
C. Black, tarry stools
D. Increased appetite
Answer: C. Black, tarry stools
Rationale: Black, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal
bleeding, a serious adverse effect of anticoagulant therapy.

Question 4
Which statement by a patient taking lisinopril indicates a need
for further teaching?
A. “I will rise slowly from a sitting position.”
B. “I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.”
C. “I should stop taking the medication if I develop a cough.”
D. “I will take the medication as prescribed.”
Answer: C. “I should stop taking the medication if I develop a
cough.”
Rationale: A dry cough is a common adverse effect of ACE
inhibitors. The patient should notify the provider but should not
discontinue the medication without instructions.

,Question 5
What is the primary action of insulin?
A. Increase glucose production
B. Lower blood glucose levels
C. Prevent protein synthesis
D. Increase fat breakdown
Answer: B. Lower blood glucose levels
Rationale: Insulin facilitates cellular uptake of glucose,
reducing blood glucose concentrations.

Question 6
A patient receives morphine for postoperative pain. Which
adverse effect requires the highest priority assessment?
A. Constipation
B. Dry mouth
C. Respiratory depression
D. Nausea
Answer: C. Respiratory depression
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse
effect of opioid medications and can be life-threatening.
Question 7
Which medication is classified as a beta-blocker?
A. Losartan
B. Metoprolol
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide

, Answer: B. Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker commonly
used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure.
Question 8
A patient taking nitroglycerin for angina should be instructed to:
A. Swallow the tablet whole
B. Store tablets in a plastic container
C. Place the tablet under the tongue
D. Take with milk
Answer: C. Place the tablet under the tongue
Rationale: Sublingual administration allows rapid absorption
and quick relief of angina symptoms.
Question 9
Which adverse effect is commonly associated with opioid
analgesics?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypertension
C. Constipation
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C. Constipation
Rationale: Opioids decrease gastrointestinal motility, frequently
causing constipation.

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Uploaded on
September 29, 2026
Number of pages
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Written in
2026/2027
Type
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