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MAST 1120 HUMAN DISEASES COMPLETE FINAL EXAM
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026-2027 FULL PACKAGE QUESTIONS
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED VERSION
The MAST 1120 Human Diseases final examination is a
comprehensive, competency-based assessment designed for medical
assistant students preparing for clinical practice. This course provides
a systematic review of anatomy and physiology per body system and
fundamental information concerning common diseases and disorders
of each body system, including description, etiology, signs and
symptoms, diagnostic procedures, treatment, management,
prognosis, and prevention. The exam is critical because medical
assistants must recognize disease presentations, understand
diagnostic findings, and support treatment planning across diverse
patient populations. The assessment includes multiple-choice
questions and scenario-based problems covering hematological,
cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, neurological, endocrine,
musculoskeletal, integumentary, sensory, and reproductive system
disorders, as well as infection control and genetic conditions. This
question bank has been meticulously crafted to simulate the
advanced, application-level difficulty of the actual assessment. By
working through these 200 questions covering disease
pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, diagnostic procedures, and
patient management, you will develop the clinical reasoning and
diagnostic precision needed to pass on your first attempt.
CORE DOMAINS TESTED
1. Hematologic System Disorders – Anemias, leukemias,
lymphomas, coagulopathies, and blood cell abnormalities.
,2
2. Cardiovascular System Disorders – Hypertension, coronary
artery disease, heart failure, arrhythmias, and vascular
disorders.
3. Respiratory System Disorders – Asthma, COPD, pneumonia,
tuberculosis, and obstructive sleep apnea.
4. Gastrointestinal System Disorders – GERD, peptic ulcer disease,
inflammatory bowel diseases, hepatitis, and colorectal
conditions.
5. Neurological System Disorders – Seizure disorders, stroke,
multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, and neurodegenerative
disorders.
6. Endocrine System Disorders – Diabetes mellitus, thyroid
disorders, adrenal disorders, and metabolic syndrome.
7. Musculoskeletal & Integumentary Disorders – Arthritis,
osteoporosis, skin infections, and dermatologic conditions.
8. Sensory Organ Disorders – Cataracts, macular degeneration,
glaucoma, hearing loss, and balance disorders.
9. Reproductive & Genitourinary Disorders – STIs, prostate
conditions, menstrual disorders, and renal diseases.
10. Genetic, Pediatric & Infectious Diseases – Hereditary
conditions, childhood diseases, and communicable infections.
QUESTIONS 1-200
Q1: A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and a smooth, sore
tongue. Laboratory findings reveal a decreased red blood cell count
with large, immature cells. The patient reports a history of chronic
gastritis. Which condition is most likely?
,3
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Sickle cell anemia
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pernicious anemia results
from loss of intrinsic factor, often due to chronic gastritis, leading to
vitamin B12 malabsorption and macrocytic anemia. Option A is
incorrect because iron deficiency anemia causes microcytic,
hypochromic red blood cells. Option C is incorrect because aplastic
anemia involves bone marrow failure with pancytopenia. Option D is
incorrect because sickle cell anemia involves sickled hemoglobin and
hemolytic crises, not macrocytosis.
Q2: A 45-year-old male presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and
unexplained weight loss. His random blood glucose is 280 mg/dL.
Which diagnostic test confirms diabetes mellitus?
A) Hemoglobin A1c of 5.5%
B) Fasting plasma glucose of 142 mg/dL
C) Random glucose of 160 mg/dL
D) Urine ketones positive
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fasting plasma glucose
of 126 mg/dL or higher confirms diabetes mellitus. Option A is
incorrect because an HbA1c below 5.7% is normal. Option C is
incorrect because a random glucose of 160 mg/dL without symptoms
is not diagnostic. Option D is incorrect because urine ketones indicate
ketosis but do not diagnose diabetes.
Q3: A patient with a history of rheumatic fever presents with a new
murmur and fever. Which cardiac condition is most likely?
, 4
A) Pericarditis
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Myocarditis
D) Aortic stenosis
Rationale: The correct answer is B because infective endocarditis
commonly affects patients with prior rheumatic heart disease and
damaged valves, presenting with fever and new murmurs. Option A is
incorrect because pericarditis causes chest pain and friction rub, not
murmurs. Option C is incorrect because myocarditis presents with
heart failure symptoms. Option D is incorrect because aortic stenosis
is a chronic valvular condition, not an acute febrile illness.
Q4: A 62-year-old smoker presents with chronic productive cough for
3 months, dyspnea on exertion, and barrel chest. Spirometry shows
decreased FEV1/FVC ratio. Which condition is most likely?
A) Asthma
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pneumonia
Rationale: The correct answer is B because COPD is characterized by
chronic productive cough, dyspnea, barrel chest, and obstructive
spirometry in smokers. Option A is incorrect because asthma is
reversible and typically presents earlier in life. Option C is incorrect
because tuberculosis presents with hemoptysis, night sweats, and
weight loss. Option D is incorrect because pneumonia is acute with
fever and consolidation.
Q5: A patient reports burning epigastric pain that worsens after
meals and at night. Endoscopy reveals a duodenal ulcer. Which
organism is most likely responsible?
MAST 1120 HUMAN DISEASES COMPLETE FINAL EXAM
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026-2027 FULL PACKAGE QUESTIONS
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED VERSION
The MAST 1120 Human Diseases final examination is a
comprehensive, competency-based assessment designed for medical
assistant students preparing for clinical practice. This course provides
a systematic review of anatomy and physiology per body system and
fundamental information concerning common diseases and disorders
of each body system, including description, etiology, signs and
symptoms, diagnostic procedures, treatment, management,
prognosis, and prevention. The exam is critical because medical
assistants must recognize disease presentations, understand
diagnostic findings, and support treatment planning across diverse
patient populations. The assessment includes multiple-choice
questions and scenario-based problems covering hematological,
cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, neurological, endocrine,
musculoskeletal, integumentary, sensory, and reproductive system
disorders, as well as infection control and genetic conditions. This
question bank has been meticulously crafted to simulate the
advanced, application-level difficulty of the actual assessment. By
working through these 200 questions covering disease
pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, diagnostic procedures, and
patient management, you will develop the clinical reasoning and
diagnostic precision needed to pass on your first attempt.
CORE DOMAINS TESTED
1. Hematologic System Disorders – Anemias, leukemias,
lymphomas, coagulopathies, and blood cell abnormalities.
,2
2. Cardiovascular System Disorders – Hypertension, coronary
artery disease, heart failure, arrhythmias, and vascular
disorders.
3. Respiratory System Disorders – Asthma, COPD, pneumonia,
tuberculosis, and obstructive sleep apnea.
4. Gastrointestinal System Disorders – GERD, peptic ulcer disease,
inflammatory bowel diseases, hepatitis, and colorectal
conditions.
5. Neurological System Disorders – Seizure disorders, stroke,
multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, and neurodegenerative
disorders.
6. Endocrine System Disorders – Diabetes mellitus, thyroid
disorders, adrenal disorders, and metabolic syndrome.
7. Musculoskeletal & Integumentary Disorders – Arthritis,
osteoporosis, skin infections, and dermatologic conditions.
8. Sensory Organ Disorders – Cataracts, macular degeneration,
glaucoma, hearing loss, and balance disorders.
9. Reproductive & Genitourinary Disorders – STIs, prostate
conditions, menstrual disorders, and renal diseases.
10. Genetic, Pediatric & Infectious Diseases – Hereditary
conditions, childhood diseases, and communicable infections.
QUESTIONS 1-200
Q1: A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and a smooth, sore
tongue. Laboratory findings reveal a decreased red blood cell count
with large, immature cells. The patient reports a history of chronic
gastritis. Which condition is most likely?
,3
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Sickle cell anemia
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pernicious anemia results
from loss of intrinsic factor, often due to chronic gastritis, leading to
vitamin B12 malabsorption and macrocytic anemia. Option A is
incorrect because iron deficiency anemia causes microcytic,
hypochromic red blood cells. Option C is incorrect because aplastic
anemia involves bone marrow failure with pancytopenia. Option D is
incorrect because sickle cell anemia involves sickled hemoglobin and
hemolytic crises, not macrocytosis.
Q2: A 45-year-old male presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and
unexplained weight loss. His random blood glucose is 280 mg/dL.
Which diagnostic test confirms diabetes mellitus?
A) Hemoglobin A1c of 5.5%
B) Fasting plasma glucose of 142 mg/dL
C) Random glucose of 160 mg/dL
D) Urine ketones positive
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fasting plasma glucose
of 126 mg/dL or higher confirms diabetes mellitus. Option A is
incorrect because an HbA1c below 5.7% is normal. Option C is
incorrect because a random glucose of 160 mg/dL without symptoms
is not diagnostic. Option D is incorrect because urine ketones indicate
ketosis but do not diagnose diabetes.
Q3: A patient with a history of rheumatic fever presents with a new
murmur and fever. Which cardiac condition is most likely?
, 4
A) Pericarditis
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Myocarditis
D) Aortic stenosis
Rationale: The correct answer is B because infective endocarditis
commonly affects patients with prior rheumatic heart disease and
damaged valves, presenting with fever and new murmurs. Option A is
incorrect because pericarditis causes chest pain and friction rub, not
murmurs. Option C is incorrect because myocarditis presents with
heart failure symptoms. Option D is incorrect because aortic stenosis
is a chronic valvular condition, not an acute febrile illness.
Q4: A 62-year-old smoker presents with chronic productive cough for
3 months, dyspnea on exertion, and barrel chest. Spirometry shows
decreased FEV1/FVC ratio. Which condition is most likely?
A) Asthma
B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pneumonia
Rationale: The correct answer is B because COPD is characterized by
chronic productive cough, dyspnea, barrel chest, and obstructive
spirometry in smokers. Option A is incorrect because asthma is
reversible and typically presents earlier in life. Option C is incorrect
because tuberculosis presents with hemoptysis, night sweats, and
weight loss. Option D is incorrect because pneumonia is acute with
fever and consolidation.
Q5: A patient reports burning epigastric pain that worsens after
meals and at night. Endoscopy reveals a duodenal ulcer. Which
organism is most likely responsible?
