RESPIRATORY THERAPY – CSE
PRACTICE EXAMINATION
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES
2026/2027 EDITION WITH INSTANT
PDF DOWNLOAD
1. A patient with acute respiratory distress has a respiratory rate
of 32/min, oxygen saturation of 84% on room air, and diffuse
bilateral crackles. Which intervention should the respiratory
therapist prioritize?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Apply supplemental oxygen
C. Place the patient in a supine position
D. Administer a sedative
Answer: B. Apply supplemental oxygen
Rationale: The patient has significant hypoxemia, making oxygen
supplementation the immediate priority. Positioning and further
diagnostic evaluation may also be necessary, but correcting
inadequate oxygenation is the first concern.
2. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) pattern is most consistent with
acute respiratory acidosis?
,A. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 52 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
C. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
D. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 48 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 34 mEq/L
Answer: B. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 52 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a decreased
pH and elevated PaCO₂. In an acute, uncompensated state, the
bicarbonate concentration may remain within the normal range.
3. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. Which oxygen
saturation target is commonly appropriate for a patient at risk of
chronic CO₂ retention?
A. 70–75%
B. 80–85%
C. 88–92%
D. 98–100%
Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale: For many patients with COPD who are at risk for
hypercapnic respiratory failure, controlled oxygen therapy
targeting approximately 88–92% saturation can provide adequate
oxygenation while reducing the risk of excessive oxygen
administration.
4. Which condition is most likely to produce a restrictive pattern
on pulmonary function testing?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
,C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Chronic bronchitis
Answer: C. Pulmonary fibrosis
Rationale: Pulmonary fibrosis reduces lung compliance and limits
lung expansion, producing a restrictive pattern characterized by
reduced lung volumes. Obstructive disorders such as asthma,
emphysema, and chronic bronchitis primarily reduce expiratory
airflow.
5. Which measurement is most useful for assessing the severity
of airflow obstruction?
A. FEV₁/FVC ratio
B. Total lung capacity alone
C. Inspiratory capacity alone
D. Functional residual capacity alone
Answer: A. FEV₁/FVC ratio
Rationale: The FEV₁/FVC ratio is a key indicator of airflow
obstruction. A reduced ratio indicates that the patient has
difficulty exhaling air rapidly, as commonly occurs in obstructive
lung disease.
6. A mechanically ventilated patient suddenly develops
hypotension, tachycardia, and absent breath sounds on the right
side. Which condition should be suspected?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Right-sided pneumothorax
, C. Left-sided atelectasis
D. Pleural effusion
Answer: B. Right-sided pneumothorax
Rationale: Sudden hypotension accompanied by unilateral
absent breath sounds in a mechanically ventilated patient
strongly suggests pneumothorax. If tension pneumothorax
develops, it can rapidly compromise venous return and
cardiovascular function.
7. Which ventilator setting primarily determines the amount of
oxygen delivered to the patient?
A. PEEP
B. Respiratory rate
C. FiO₂
D. Inspiratory flow
Answer: C. FiO₂
Rationale: The fraction of inspired oxygen, or FiO₂, directly
determines the concentration of oxygen in the gas mixture
delivered to the patient. PEEP primarily affects alveolar
recruitment and oxygenation through increased end-expiratory
pressure.
8. What is the primary purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure
(PEEP)?
A. Increase airway resistance
B. Prevent alveolar collapse at end expiration
PRACTICE EXAMINATION
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES
2026/2027 EDITION WITH INSTANT
PDF DOWNLOAD
1. A patient with acute respiratory distress has a respiratory rate
of 32/min, oxygen saturation of 84% on room air, and diffuse
bilateral crackles. Which intervention should the respiratory
therapist prioritize?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Apply supplemental oxygen
C. Place the patient in a supine position
D. Administer a sedative
Answer: B. Apply supplemental oxygen
Rationale: The patient has significant hypoxemia, making oxygen
supplementation the immediate priority. Positioning and further
diagnostic evaluation may also be necessary, but correcting
inadequate oxygenation is the first concern.
2. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) pattern is most consistent with
acute respiratory acidosis?
,A. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 52 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
C. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
D. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 48 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 34 mEq/L
Answer: B. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 52 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a decreased
pH and elevated PaCO₂. In an acute, uncompensated state, the
bicarbonate concentration may remain within the normal range.
3. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. Which oxygen
saturation target is commonly appropriate for a patient at risk of
chronic CO₂ retention?
A. 70–75%
B. 80–85%
C. 88–92%
D. 98–100%
Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale: For many patients with COPD who are at risk for
hypercapnic respiratory failure, controlled oxygen therapy
targeting approximately 88–92% saturation can provide adequate
oxygenation while reducing the risk of excessive oxygen
administration.
4. Which condition is most likely to produce a restrictive pattern
on pulmonary function testing?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
,C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Chronic bronchitis
Answer: C. Pulmonary fibrosis
Rationale: Pulmonary fibrosis reduces lung compliance and limits
lung expansion, producing a restrictive pattern characterized by
reduced lung volumes. Obstructive disorders such as asthma,
emphysema, and chronic bronchitis primarily reduce expiratory
airflow.
5. Which measurement is most useful for assessing the severity
of airflow obstruction?
A. FEV₁/FVC ratio
B. Total lung capacity alone
C. Inspiratory capacity alone
D. Functional residual capacity alone
Answer: A. FEV₁/FVC ratio
Rationale: The FEV₁/FVC ratio is a key indicator of airflow
obstruction. A reduced ratio indicates that the patient has
difficulty exhaling air rapidly, as commonly occurs in obstructive
lung disease.
6. A mechanically ventilated patient suddenly develops
hypotension, tachycardia, and absent breath sounds on the right
side. Which condition should be suspected?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Right-sided pneumothorax
, C. Left-sided atelectasis
D. Pleural effusion
Answer: B. Right-sided pneumothorax
Rationale: Sudden hypotension accompanied by unilateral
absent breath sounds in a mechanically ventilated patient
strongly suggests pneumothorax. If tension pneumothorax
develops, it can rapidly compromise venous return and
cardiovascular function.
7. Which ventilator setting primarily determines the amount of
oxygen delivered to the patient?
A. PEEP
B. Respiratory rate
C. FiO₂
D. Inspiratory flow
Answer: C. FiO₂
Rationale: The fraction of inspired oxygen, or FiO₂, directly
determines the concentration of oxygen in the gas mixture
delivered to the patient. PEEP primarily affects alveolar
recruitment and oxygenation through increased end-expiratory
pressure.
8. What is the primary purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure
(PEEP)?
A. Increase airway resistance
B. Prevent alveolar collapse at end expiration
