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NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 3 - COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW (VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027 CHAMBERLAIN

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NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 3 - COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW (VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027 CHAMBERLAIN

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NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
EXAM 3 - COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW
(VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027
CHAMBERLAIN


1. A patient who has been taking a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) for three

weeks presents with confusion, agitation, tachycardia, and muscle rigidity. Which condition

should the nurse practitioner suspect?

A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome


B. Serotonin Syndrome


C. Anticholinergic Toxicity


D. Major Depressive Disorder relapse


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition

caused by excessive serotonergic activity. Symptoms include mental status changes,

autonomic hyperactivity, and neuromuscular abnormalities.


2. When prescribing Lithium for a patient with Bipolar Disorder, which of the following

laboratory tests is most critical to monitor due to its effect on Lithium clearance?

A. Serum sodium and Creatinine

,B. Liver function tests (ALT/AST)


C. Hemoglobin A1c


D. Serum amylase


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Lithium is excreted by the kidneys. Low sodium levels can lead

to increased lithium reabsorption, resulting in toxicity; thus, renal function and electrolyte

levels are vital for safe dosing.


3. A 28-year-old female patient is being considered for Valproic Acid therapy for seizure

control. What is the most significant concern for this specific patient?

A. High risk of nephrotoxicity


B. Potential for Stevens-Johnson Syndrome


C. Risk of weight loss


D. High teratogenic risk (Neural tube defects)


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Valproic acid is highly teratogenic, specifically associated with

neural tube defects. It should be avoided in women of childbearing age unless other options

are ineffective.

, 4. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of Donepezil (Aricept) in the

treatment of Alzheimer’s disease?

A. NMDA receptor antagonist


B. Reversible cholinesterase inhibitor


C. Dopamine agonist


D. Beta-amyloid plaque dissolver


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Donepezil works by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase,

which increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft to improve

cognitive function.


5. A patient taking Phenytoin (Dilantin) requires education regarding long-term side effects.

Which of the following should be included?

A. Excessive hair loss


B. Gingival hyperplasia and vitamin D deficiency


C. Increased risk of hypoglycemia


D. Hypertension


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Common long-term side effects of Phenytoin include gingival

hyperplasia, hirsutism, and interference with Vitamin D and folate metabolism.

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