NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
EXAM 5 FINAL REVIEW (VERIFIED AND
CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION
GUARANTEED 2026/2027
CHAMBERLAIN
1. A 55-year-old patient with Type 2 Diabetes and a history of NYHA Class III Heart Failure
requires a new medication to manage their glucose levels. Which of the following
medications is absolutely contraindicated in this patient?
A. Pioglitazone
B. Metformin
C. Empagliflozin
D. Sitagliptin
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) like Pioglitazone cause fluid
retention and are contraindicated in patients with symptomatic heart failure (NYHA Class
III or IV).
2. A patient is prescribed Levothyroxine for the treatment of hypothyroidism. Which
instruction is crucial for ensuring optimal absorption?
A. Take the medication with a high-fiber breakfast.
,B. Take the medication at bedtime with a glass of milk.
C. Take the medication on an empty stomach, 30-60 minutes before breakfast.
D. Take the medication immediately after the largest meal of the day.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Levothyroxine absorption is decreased by food, calcium, and
fiber; it should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning for consistent bioavailability.
3. Which laboratory monitoring parameter is most critical for a patient newly started on
Propylthiouracil (PTU) for Graves’ disease?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. Serum creatinine
C. Serum potassium
D. Liver function tests (ALT/AST)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: PTU carries a boxed warning for severe liver injury and acute
liver failure, making monitoring of LFTs essential.
4. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. How should the nurse
practitioner describe the pharmacokinetic profile of this insulin?
A. It has a rapid onset and peaks in 1 hour.
B. It provides a peakless, basal level of insulin for approximately 24 hours.
, C. It has a 4-6 hour duration of action.
D. It must be mixed with NPH insulin in the same syringe.
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a duration of
roughly 24 hours and no significant peak.
5. Which mechanism of action best describes how Metformin lowers blood glucose?
A. Decreasing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity.
B. Increasing glucose reabsorption in the proximal renal tubule.
C. Stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells.
D. Slowing the breakdown of complex carbohydrates in the gut.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Metformin primarily works by inhibiting gluconeogenesis in the
liver and increasing peripheral glucose uptake.
6. A patient is being treated for a thyroid storm. Which medication should be administered to
specifically inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
A. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
B. Radioactive Iodine
C. Methimazole
EXAM 5 FINAL REVIEW (VERIFIED AND
CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION
GUARANTEED 2026/2027
CHAMBERLAIN
1. A 55-year-old patient with Type 2 Diabetes and a history of NYHA Class III Heart Failure
requires a new medication to manage their glucose levels. Which of the following
medications is absolutely contraindicated in this patient?
A. Pioglitazone
B. Metformin
C. Empagliflozin
D. Sitagliptin
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) like Pioglitazone cause fluid
retention and are contraindicated in patients with symptomatic heart failure (NYHA Class
III or IV).
2. A patient is prescribed Levothyroxine for the treatment of hypothyroidism. Which
instruction is crucial for ensuring optimal absorption?
A. Take the medication with a high-fiber breakfast.
,B. Take the medication at bedtime with a glass of milk.
C. Take the medication on an empty stomach, 30-60 minutes before breakfast.
D. Take the medication immediately after the largest meal of the day.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Levothyroxine absorption is decreased by food, calcium, and
fiber; it should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning for consistent bioavailability.
3. Which laboratory monitoring parameter is most critical for a patient newly started on
Propylthiouracil (PTU) for Graves’ disease?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. Serum creatinine
C. Serum potassium
D. Liver function tests (ALT/AST)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: PTU carries a boxed warning for severe liver injury and acute
liver failure, making monitoring of LFTs essential.
4. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. How should the nurse
practitioner describe the pharmacokinetic profile of this insulin?
A. It has a rapid onset and peaks in 1 hour.
B. It provides a peakless, basal level of insulin for approximately 24 hours.
, C. It has a 4-6 hour duration of action.
D. It must be mixed with NPH insulin in the same syringe.
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a duration of
roughly 24 hours and no significant peak.
5. Which mechanism of action best describes how Metformin lowers blood glucose?
A. Decreasing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity.
B. Increasing glucose reabsorption in the proximal renal tubule.
C. Stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells.
D. Slowing the breakdown of complex carbohydrates in the gut.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Metformin primarily works by inhibiting gluconeogenesis in the
liver and increasing peripheral glucose uptake.
6. A patient is being treated for a thyroid storm. Which medication should be administered to
specifically inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
A. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
B. Radioactive Iodine
C. Methimazole
