HESI RN EXIT EXAM V7 NGN QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 1.
On an emergency department, the nurse is preparing to secure the airway when inhalation
injury is suspected and begin fluid resuscitation and burn care promptly. Which
assessment cue is most consistent with the underlying problem?
A. Very high dilute urine output intense thirst rising sodium and high serum osmolality
suggest diabetes insipidus.
B. Tachycardia hypotension cool clammy skin delayed capillary refill low urine output and
flat neck veins suggest volume-loss shock.
C. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection risk.
D. Advanced kidney disease can cause potassium retention acidosis anemia pruritus and
fluid overload.
Correct Answer: C. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain
and infection risk.
Explanation: Clinical judgment favors this response because it targets the identified
problem rather than a secondary concern. The most characteristic cue or principle for
Major burns is large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection
risk. Physiological priorities protect airway, breathing, circulation, perfusion, neurologic
function, and organ stability while definitive treatment proceeds. The distractors describe
findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the
concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history,
assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 2.
A 52-year-old client requires the nurse to inject into abdominal subcutaneous tissue and
avoid expelling the manufacturer air bubble when instructed for prefilled syringes. Which
cue most likely prompted this decision?
A. A solution containing 100 units in 100 mL delivers 1 unit for each mL infused.
B. Tetracyclines interact with calcium iron and antacids and can cause photosensitivity.
C. IV vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity and infusion-related flushing and hypotension if
given too rapidly.
D. Low-molecular-weight heparin is given subcutaneously and can cause bleeding and
thrombocytopenia.
Correct Answer: D. Low-molecular-weight heparin is given subcutaneously and
can cause bleeding and thrombocytopenia.
Explanation: This answer is the best match for the client data and the expected nursing
standard. The most characteristic cue or principle for Enoxaparin is low-molecular-weight
heparin is given subcutaneously and can cause bleeding and thrombocytopenia.
Medication decisions require attention to indication, dose, administration safety, adverse
effects, interactions, and response to therapy. The distractors describe findings associated
with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the concept being tested;
,the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history, assessment data, and trends
before choosing the next intervention.
Question 3.
A 59-year-old client requires the nurse to offer an approved screening strategy and
emphasize completion of follow-up colonoscopy after abnormal noninvasive tests. Which
cue most likely prompted this decision?
A. Average-risk adults benefit from guideline-based colorectal screening beginning in
midlife.
B. Newborn screening detects selected metabolic endocrine hematologic hearing and
cardiac problems before symptoms develop.
C. Screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type of approved cervical
screening strategy.
D. Pregnancy includes screening for gestational diabetes at the guideline-recommended
interval or earlier when high risk.
Correct Answer: A. Average-risk adults benefit from guideline-based colorectal
screening beginning in midlife.
Explanation: This answer is the best match for the client data and the expected nursing
standard. The most characteristic cue or principle for Colorectal-cancer screening is
average-risk adults benefit from guideline-based colorectal screening beginning in midlife.
Health-promotion care emphasizes prevention, development, screening, immunization,
anticipatory guidance, and early recognition of warning signs. The distractors describe
findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the
concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history,
assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 4.
During report, the next planned response is to use pressure relief wound assessment and
prescribed debridement or dressings as indicated. Which finding best explains why this
plan is appropriate?
A. Pressure-injury prevention reduces sustained pressure friction shear and moisture while
supporting nutrition.
B. Stage 3 pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue but
no exposed fascia muscle tendon or bone.
C. Adequate calories protein vitamins and minerals support tissue repair.
D. Stage 2 pressure injury is partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis and no visible
adipose tissue.
Correct Answer: B. Stage 3 pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with
visible adipose tissue but no exposed fascia muscle tendon or bone.
Explanation: This answer is the best match for the client data and the expected nursing
standard. The most characteristic cue or principle for Stage 3 pressure injury is stage 3
pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue but no exposed
fascia muscle tendon or bone. Basic-care decisions should preserve function, nutrition,
,elimination, mobility, skin integrity, comfort, and dignity without creating avoidable risk.
The distractors describe findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do
not best identify the concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the
remaining history, assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 5.
A planned nursing response is to verify NPO status preparation and postprocedure airway
and orientation monitoring. Which finding should the nurse connect most directly with the
reason for this intervention?
A. Crisis care focuses on safety immediate problems supports and practical coping rather
than deep long-term analysis.
B. Opioid-use disorder is treated with evidence-based medications counseling harm
reduction and overdose prevention.
C. ECT can cause short-term confusion and memory disturbance and is performed under
anesthesia.
D. Bulimia involves recurrent binge eating with compensatory behaviors and may cause
electrolyte and dental complications.
Correct Answer: C. ECT can cause short-term confusion and memory disturbance
and is performed under anesthesia.
Explanation: The selected response is the most appropriate next step for the situation
presented. The most characteristic cue or principle for Electroconvulsive therapy is eCT
can cause short-term confusion and memory disturbance and is performed under
anesthesia. Psychosocial nursing prioritizes immediate safety, therapeutic communication,
dignity, boundaries, recovery, and the least restrictive effective approach. The distractors
describe findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best
identify the concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining
history, assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 6.
The care plan includes the response: start emergency cooling beta blockade antithyroid
therapy and supportive care as ordered. Which finding or principle would most strongly
justify this plan?
A. High fever severe tachycardia agitation vomiting and heart failure in hyperthyroidism
suggest thyroid storm.
B. Sudden focal neurologic deficit such as unilateral weakness aphasia or visual loss
suggests stroke until proven otherwise.
C. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection risk.
D. Infection with hypotension altered perfusion elevated lactate or organ dysfunction
suggests severe sepsis or septic shock.
Correct Answer: A. High fever severe tachycardia agitation vomiting and heart
failure in hyperthyroidism suggest thyroid storm.
Explanation: The keyed option is the most direct response to the clinical problem in the
stem. The most characteristic cue or principle for Thyroid storm is high fever severe
, tachycardia agitation vomiting and heart failure in hyperthyroidism suggest thyroid storm.
Physiological priorities protect airway, breathing, circulation, perfusion, neurologic
function, and organ stability while definitive treatment proceeds. The distractors describe
findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the
concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history,
assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 7.
On an outpatient specialty clinic, the nurse is preparing to encourage average-risk clients
to follow current guideline-based cervical screening rather than annual testing without
indication. Which assessment cue is most consistent with the underlying problem?
A. Average-risk breast screening uses age- and risk-based mammography
recommendations and individualized risk assessment.
B. UV protection reduces skin damage and risk of skin cancers.
C. Hypertension may be asymptomatic and repeated accurate blood-pressure
measurement is important.
D. Screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type of approved cervical
screening strategy.
Correct Answer: D. Screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type
of approved cervical screening strategy.
Explanation: Clinical judgment favors this response because it targets the identified
problem rather than a secondary concern. The most characteristic cue or principle for
Cervical-cancer screening is screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type
of approved cervical screening strategy. Health-promotion care emphasizes prevention,
development, screening, immunization, anticipatory guidance, and early recognition of
warning signs. The distractors describe findings associated with other nursing problems
and therefore do not best identify the concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this
cue with the remaining history, assessment data, and trends before choosing the next
intervention.
Question 8.
The care plan includes the response: give IV fluids corticosteroids and glucose as needed
without delay. Which finding or principle would most strongly justify this plan?
A. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection risk.
B. Severe hypotension weakness abdominal symptoms hyponatremia hyperkalemia and
hypoglycemia may indicate adrenal crisis.
C. Sudden wheeze stridor hypotension hives or angioedema after an exposure suggests
anaphylaxis.
D. Hyperglycemia ketones metabolic acidosis dehydration and Kussmaul respirations
suggest DKA.
Correct Answer: B. Severe hypotension weakness abdominal symptoms
hyponatremia hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia may indicate adrenal crisis.
WITH ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 1.
On an emergency department, the nurse is preparing to secure the airway when inhalation
injury is suspected and begin fluid resuscitation and burn care promptly. Which
assessment cue is most consistent with the underlying problem?
A. Very high dilute urine output intense thirst rising sodium and high serum osmolality
suggest diabetes insipidus.
B. Tachycardia hypotension cool clammy skin delayed capillary refill low urine output and
flat neck veins suggest volume-loss shock.
C. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection risk.
D. Advanced kidney disease can cause potassium retention acidosis anemia pruritus and
fluid overload.
Correct Answer: C. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain
and infection risk.
Explanation: Clinical judgment favors this response because it targets the identified
problem rather than a secondary concern. The most characteristic cue or principle for
Major burns is large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection
risk. Physiological priorities protect airway, breathing, circulation, perfusion, neurologic
function, and organ stability while definitive treatment proceeds. The distractors describe
findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the
concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history,
assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 2.
A 52-year-old client requires the nurse to inject into abdominal subcutaneous tissue and
avoid expelling the manufacturer air bubble when instructed for prefilled syringes. Which
cue most likely prompted this decision?
A. A solution containing 100 units in 100 mL delivers 1 unit for each mL infused.
B. Tetracyclines interact with calcium iron and antacids and can cause photosensitivity.
C. IV vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity and infusion-related flushing and hypotension if
given too rapidly.
D. Low-molecular-weight heparin is given subcutaneously and can cause bleeding and
thrombocytopenia.
Correct Answer: D. Low-molecular-weight heparin is given subcutaneously and
can cause bleeding and thrombocytopenia.
Explanation: This answer is the best match for the client data and the expected nursing
standard. The most characteristic cue or principle for Enoxaparin is low-molecular-weight
heparin is given subcutaneously and can cause bleeding and thrombocytopenia.
Medication decisions require attention to indication, dose, administration safety, adverse
effects, interactions, and response to therapy. The distractors describe findings associated
with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the concept being tested;
,the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history, assessment data, and trends
before choosing the next intervention.
Question 3.
A 59-year-old client requires the nurse to offer an approved screening strategy and
emphasize completion of follow-up colonoscopy after abnormal noninvasive tests. Which
cue most likely prompted this decision?
A. Average-risk adults benefit from guideline-based colorectal screening beginning in
midlife.
B. Newborn screening detects selected metabolic endocrine hematologic hearing and
cardiac problems before symptoms develop.
C. Screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type of approved cervical
screening strategy.
D. Pregnancy includes screening for gestational diabetes at the guideline-recommended
interval or earlier when high risk.
Correct Answer: A. Average-risk adults benefit from guideline-based colorectal
screening beginning in midlife.
Explanation: This answer is the best match for the client data and the expected nursing
standard. The most characteristic cue or principle for Colorectal-cancer screening is
average-risk adults benefit from guideline-based colorectal screening beginning in midlife.
Health-promotion care emphasizes prevention, development, screening, immunization,
anticipatory guidance, and early recognition of warning signs. The distractors describe
findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the
concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history,
assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 4.
During report, the next planned response is to use pressure relief wound assessment and
prescribed debridement or dressings as indicated. Which finding best explains why this
plan is appropriate?
A. Pressure-injury prevention reduces sustained pressure friction shear and moisture while
supporting nutrition.
B. Stage 3 pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue but
no exposed fascia muscle tendon or bone.
C. Adequate calories protein vitamins and minerals support tissue repair.
D. Stage 2 pressure injury is partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis and no visible
adipose tissue.
Correct Answer: B. Stage 3 pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with
visible adipose tissue but no exposed fascia muscle tendon or bone.
Explanation: This answer is the best match for the client data and the expected nursing
standard. The most characteristic cue or principle for Stage 3 pressure injury is stage 3
pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue but no exposed
fascia muscle tendon or bone. Basic-care decisions should preserve function, nutrition,
,elimination, mobility, skin integrity, comfort, and dignity without creating avoidable risk.
The distractors describe findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do
not best identify the concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the
remaining history, assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 5.
A planned nursing response is to verify NPO status preparation and postprocedure airway
and orientation monitoring. Which finding should the nurse connect most directly with the
reason for this intervention?
A. Crisis care focuses on safety immediate problems supports and practical coping rather
than deep long-term analysis.
B. Opioid-use disorder is treated with evidence-based medications counseling harm
reduction and overdose prevention.
C. ECT can cause short-term confusion and memory disturbance and is performed under
anesthesia.
D. Bulimia involves recurrent binge eating with compensatory behaviors and may cause
electrolyte and dental complications.
Correct Answer: C. ECT can cause short-term confusion and memory disturbance
and is performed under anesthesia.
Explanation: The selected response is the most appropriate next step for the situation
presented. The most characteristic cue or principle for Electroconvulsive therapy is eCT
can cause short-term confusion and memory disturbance and is performed under
anesthesia. Psychosocial nursing prioritizes immediate safety, therapeutic communication,
dignity, boundaries, recovery, and the least restrictive effective approach. The distractors
describe findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best
identify the concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining
history, assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 6.
The care plan includes the response: start emergency cooling beta blockade antithyroid
therapy and supportive care as ordered. Which finding or principle would most strongly
justify this plan?
A. High fever severe tachycardia agitation vomiting and heart failure in hyperthyroidism
suggest thyroid storm.
B. Sudden focal neurologic deficit such as unilateral weakness aphasia or visual loss
suggests stroke until proven otherwise.
C. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection risk.
D. Infection with hypotension altered perfusion elevated lactate or organ dysfunction
suggests severe sepsis or septic shock.
Correct Answer: A. High fever severe tachycardia agitation vomiting and heart
failure in hyperthyroidism suggest thyroid storm.
Explanation: The keyed option is the most direct response to the clinical problem in the
stem. The most characteristic cue or principle for Thyroid storm is high fever severe
, tachycardia agitation vomiting and heart failure in hyperthyroidism suggest thyroid storm.
Physiological priorities protect airway, breathing, circulation, perfusion, neurologic
function, and organ stability while definitive treatment proceeds. The distractors describe
findings associated with other nursing problems and therefore do not best identify the
concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this cue with the remaining history,
assessment data, and trends before choosing the next intervention.
Question 7.
On an outpatient specialty clinic, the nurse is preparing to encourage average-risk clients
to follow current guideline-based cervical screening rather than annual testing without
indication. Which assessment cue is most consistent with the underlying problem?
A. Average-risk breast screening uses age- and risk-based mammography
recommendations and individualized risk assessment.
B. UV protection reduces skin damage and risk of skin cancers.
C. Hypertension may be asymptomatic and repeated accurate blood-pressure
measurement is important.
D. Screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type of approved cervical
screening strategy.
Correct Answer: D. Screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type
of approved cervical screening strategy.
Explanation: Clinical judgment favors this response because it targets the identified
problem rather than a secondary concern. The most characteristic cue or principle for
Cervical-cancer screening is screening intervals depend on age prior results and the type
of approved cervical screening strategy. Health-promotion care emphasizes prevention,
development, screening, immunization, anticipatory guidance, and early recognition of
warning signs. The distractors describe findings associated with other nursing problems
and therefore do not best identify the concept being tested; the nurse should cluster this
cue with the remaining history, assessment data, and trends before choosing the next
intervention.
Question 8.
The care plan includes the response: give IV fluids corticosteroids and glucose as needed
without delay. Which finding or principle would most strongly justify this plan?
A. Large burns cause capillary leak hypovolemia heat loss pain and infection risk.
B. Severe hypotension weakness abdominal symptoms hyponatremia hyperkalemia and
hypoglycemia may indicate adrenal crisis.
C. Sudden wheeze stridor hypotension hives or angioedema after an exposure suggests
anaphylaxis.
D. Hyperglycemia ketones metabolic acidosis dehydration and Kussmaul respirations
suggest DKA.
Correct Answer: B. Severe hypotension weakness abdominal symptoms
hyponatremia hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia may indicate adrenal crisis.
