CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
NR-324 ADULT HEALTH I EXAM
2026
146 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY NR-324 ADULT HEALTH I EXAM 2026. It contains 146 carefully selected
questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a
correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical
reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 146 Questions
Foundations - Application - Chamberlain University Nr-324 Adult Health I 2026 Adult Health Nursing I
Medical-surgical Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 3 Prelicensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-25 Finding, Prescribed, Receiving, Immediate, Intervention
Safety AND Infection Control 26-50 Finding, Anticipate, Acute, Prescribed, Receiving
Health Promotion AND 51-75 Finding, Acute, Receiving, Indicates, Blood
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 76-100 Finding, Laboratory, Prescribed, Acute, Indicates
Basic CARE AND Comfort 101-125 Prescribed, Blood, Finding, Receiving, Intervention
Pharmacological AND 126-146 Finding, Acute, Exacerbation, Prescribed, First
Parenteral Therapies
TOTAL 146 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient receiving furosemide for heart failure has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which
assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
A. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes B. Muscle weakness and leg cramps
C. Positive Trousseau's sign D. Kussmaul respirations
Correct: B - Muscle weakness and leg cramps
Rationale:Hypokalemia (K+ <3.5 mEq/L) causes skeletal muscle weakness, cramps, and
fatigue. Trousseau's sign reflects hypocalcemia, and Kussmaul respirations reflect metabolic
acidosis.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Hyperreflexia is associated with hypocalcemia or hypomagnesemia, not hypokalemia.
C. Trousseau's sign is a hallmark of hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia.
D. Kussmaul respirations indicate metabolic acidosis, not potassium imbalance.
Reference: Hinkle, J.L. & Cheever, K.H. (2022). Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical
Nursing, 15th Ed., Ch. 13
Q2.
Which finding in the immediate postoperative period after a thyroidectomy requires the
nurse's most immediate intervention?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the B. Hoarse voice when speaking
dressing
C. High-pitched inspiratory stridor D. Complaint of incisional pain at 4/10
Correct: C - High-pitched inspiratory stridor
Rationale:Stridor indicates laryngeal edema or recurrent laryngeal nerve injury causing
airway obstruction, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Hoarseness alone is expected and monitored.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Serosanguineous drainage is an expected postoperative finding.
B. Hoarseness is common post-thyroidectomy and is monitored, not an emergency.
D. Mild incisional pain is expected and managed with analgesia.
Reference: Lewis, S.L. et al. (2023). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th Ed., Ch. 49
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Q3.
Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor in a patient receiving
continuous IV heparin infusion?
A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT)
C. International normalized ratio (INR) D. Bleeding time
Correct: B - Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale:Unfractionated heparin therapy is monitored with aPTT, targeting 1.5-2.5 times the
control value. PT/INR monitor warfarin, and bleeding time is not used for heparin titration.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. PT measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor warfarin, not heparin.
C. INR is the standardized measure for warfarin therapy.
D. Bleeding time is not used to titrate heparin infusions.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 52
Q4.
A patient with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 86% on room air. Which oxygen delivery
method should the nurse anticipate?
A. High-flow 100% non-rebreather mask B. Venturi mask titrated to 2-4 L/min
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min D. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
Correct: B - Venturi mask titrated to 2-4 L/min
Rationale:COPD patients with chronic CO2 retention require controlled low-flow oxygen
(Venturi mask) to maintain SpO2 88-92% and avoid oxygen-induced hypercapnia. High-flow
oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. 100% oxygen risks suppressing the hypoxic drive and causing CO2 narcosis in COPD.
C. A simple mask at high flow delivers uncontrolled FiO2, unsafe for COPD.
D. 6 L/min via cannula exceeds the recommended low-flow range for COPD.
Reference: Hinkle, J.L. & Cheever, K.H. (2022). Brunner & Suddarth's, 15th Ed., Ch. 24
Q5.
Which assessment finding is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather
than hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS)?
A. Blood glucose >600 mg/dL B. Kussmaul respirations with fruity breath
Page 4
NR-324 ADULT HEALTH I EXAM
2026
146 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY NR-324 ADULT HEALTH I EXAM 2026. It contains 146 carefully selected
questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a
correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical
reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 146 Questions
Foundations - Application - Chamberlain University Nr-324 Adult Health I 2026 Adult Health Nursing I
Medical-surgical Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 3 Prelicensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-25 Finding, Prescribed, Receiving, Immediate, Intervention
Safety AND Infection Control 26-50 Finding, Anticipate, Acute, Prescribed, Receiving
Health Promotion AND 51-75 Finding, Acute, Receiving, Indicates, Blood
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 76-100 Finding, Laboratory, Prescribed, Acute, Indicates
Basic CARE AND Comfort 101-125 Prescribed, Blood, Finding, Receiving, Intervention
Pharmacological AND 126-146 Finding, Acute, Exacerbation, Prescribed, First
Parenteral Therapies
TOTAL 146 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient receiving furosemide for heart failure has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which
assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
A. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes B. Muscle weakness and leg cramps
C. Positive Trousseau's sign D. Kussmaul respirations
Correct: B - Muscle weakness and leg cramps
Rationale:Hypokalemia (K+ <3.5 mEq/L) causes skeletal muscle weakness, cramps, and
fatigue. Trousseau's sign reflects hypocalcemia, and Kussmaul respirations reflect metabolic
acidosis.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Hyperreflexia is associated with hypocalcemia or hypomagnesemia, not hypokalemia.
C. Trousseau's sign is a hallmark of hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia.
D. Kussmaul respirations indicate metabolic acidosis, not potassium imbalance.
Reference: Hinkle, J.L. & Cheever, K.H. (2022). Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical
Nursing, 15th Ed., Ch. 13
Q2.
Which finding in the immediate postoperative period after a thyroidectomy requires the
nurse's most immediate intervention?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the B. Hoarse voice when speaking
dressing
C. High-pitched inspiratory stridor D. Complaint of incisional pain at 4/10
Correct: C - High-pitched inspiratory stridor
Rationale:Stridor indicates laryngeal edema or recurrent laryngeal nerve injury causing
airway obstruction, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Hoarseness alone is expected and monitored.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Serosanguineous drainage is an expected postoperative finding.
B. Hoarseness is common post-thyroidectomy and is monitored, not an emergency.
D. Mild incisional pain is expected and managed with analgesia.
Reference: Lewis, S.L. et al. (2023). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th Ed., Ch. 49
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Q3.
Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor in a patient receiving
continuous IV heparin infusion?
A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT)
C. International normalized ratio (INR) D. Bleeding time
Correct: B - Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale:Unfractionated heparin therapy is monitored with aPTT, targeting 1.5-2.5 times the
control value. PT/INR monitor warfarin, and bleeding time is not used for heparin titration.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. PT measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor warfarin, not heparin.
C. INR is the standardized measure for warfarin therapy.
D. Bleeding time is not used to titrate heparin infusions.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 52
Q4.
A patient with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 86% on room air. Which oxygen delivery
method should the nurse anticipate?
A. High-flow 100% non-rebreather mask B. Venturi mask titrated to 2-4 L/min
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min D. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
Correct: B - Venturi mask titrated to 2-4 L/min
Rationale:COPD patients with chronic CO2 retention require controlled low-flow oxygen
(Venturi mask) to maintain SpO2 88-92% and avoid oxygen-induced hypercapnia. High-flow
oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. 100% oxygen risks suppressing the hypoxic drive and causing CO2 narcosis in COPD.
C. A simple mask at high flow delivers uncontrolled FiO2, unsafe for COPD.
D. 6 L/min via cannula exceeds the recommended low-flow range for COPD.
Reference: Hinkle, J.L. & Cheever, K.H. (2022). Brunner & Suddarth's, 15th Ed., Ch. 24
Q5.
Which assessment finding is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather
than hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS)?
A. Blood glucose >600 mg/dL B. Kussmaul respirations with fruity breath
Page 4
