REx-PN Complete Fundamentals to
Advanced Nursing Care Practice Exam
2026–2027| Complete Test Prep
Practice Questions With Answers &
Detailed Rationales |clinical Judgment
&Safety |A+ Rated
1. A practical nurse enters a client's room and finds the client
unresponsive. What should the nurse do first?
A. Obtain a blood pressure
B. Check the client's pulse
C. Assess responsiveness and breathing
D. Call the family
Answer: C. Assess responsiveness and breathing
Rationale: The initial assessment determines whether the client is
responsive and breathing and guides immediate emergency
interventions.
2. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Temperature of 37.2°C
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Pulse of 84/min
D. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
Rationale: Bradypnea may indicate respiratory depression and
inadequate ventilation and requires prompt assessment.
,3. Which action is most effective for preventing healthcare-
associated infections?
A. Wearing gloves for every interaction
B. Performing hand hygiene
C. Using sterile equipment for all procedures
D. Wearing a mask when entering every room
Answer: B. Performing hand hygiene
Rationale: Proper hand hygiene is one of the most effective measures
for preventing transmission of microorganisms.
4. When removing contaminated gloves, which action is correct?
A. Touch the outside of both gloves
B. Pull both gloves off simultaneously
C. Avoid touching the contaminated outer surface
D. Wash the gloves before removing them
Answer: C. Avoid touching the contaminated outer surface
Rationale: Proper glove removal prevents contamination of the hands
and surrounding environment.
5. Which position is generally appropriate for a client experiencing
dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. High Fowler's
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone
Answer: B. High Fowler's
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes lung expansion and
decreases the work of breathing.
6. A nurse is assisting a client to ambulate after surgery. Which
finding should cause the nurse to stop the activity?
,A. Mild incisional discomfort
B. Heart rate increasing from 76 to 84/min
C. New dizziness and pallor
D. Respiratory rate increasing from 16 to 20/min
Answer: C. New dizziness and pallor
Rationale: Dizziness and pallor may indicate orthostatic hypotension
or inadequate perfusion and warrant stopping the activity.
7. Which assessment is most important before administering an
opioid?
A. Skin turgor
B. Respiratory rate
C. Bowel sounds
D. Pupillary response
Answer: B. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression, making
respiratory assessment essential before administration.
8. Which finding indicates that a client may be developing
dehydration?
A. Moist mucous membranes
B. Increased urine output
C. Concentrated urine
D. Bounding pulse
Answer: C. Concentrated urine
Rationale: Dehydration commonly causes decreased urine output and
concentrated urine.
9. Which intervention helps prevent pressure injuries in an
immobile client?
, A. Massage reddened bony prominences
B. Reposition the client regularly
C. Keep the head of bed elevated continuously
D. Restrict fluid intake
Answer: B. Reposition the client regularly
Rationale: Regular repositioning relieves prolonged pressure and
helps maintain tissue perfusion.
10. A client has nonblanchable redness over the sacrum. How
should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Normal skin variation
B. Stage 1 pressure injury
C. Stage 2 pressure injury
D. Deep tissue injury
Answer: B. Stage 1 pressure injury
Rationale: Stage 1 pressure injury presents as intact skin with
persistent nonblanchable erythema.
11. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client
receiving oxygen?
A. Dry nasal passages
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Oxygen saturation of 96%
D. New confusion
Answer: D. New confusion
Rationale: New confusion can indicate hypoxemia or another acute
change requiring immediate assessment.
12. What is the best way to verify a client's identity before
medication administration?
Advanced Nursing Care Practice Exam
2026–2027| Complete Test Prep
Practice Questions With Answers &
Detailed Rationales |clinical Judgment
&Safety |A+ Rated
1. A practical nurse enters a client's room and finds the client
unresponsive. What should the nurse do first?
A. Obtain a blood pressure
B. Check the client's pulse
C. Assess responsiveness and breathing
D. Call the family
Answer: C. Assess responsiveness and breathing
Rationale: The initial assessment determines whether the client is
responsive and breathing and guides immediate emergency
interventions.
2. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Temperature of 37.2°C
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Pulse of 84/min
D. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
Rationale: Bradypnea may indicate respiratory depression and
inadequate ventilation and requires prompt assessment.
,3. Which action is most effective for preventing healthcare-
associated infections?
A. Wearing gloves for every interaction
B. Performing hand hygiene
C. Using sterile equipment for all procedures
D. Wearing a mask when entering every room
Answer: B. Performing hand hygiene
Rationale: Proper hand hygiene is one of the most effective measures
for preventing transmission of microorganisms.
4. When removing contaminated gloves, which action is correct?
A. Touch the outside of both gloves
B. Pull both gloves off simultaneously
C. Avoid touching the contaminated outer surface
D. Wash the gloves before removing them
Answer: C. Avoid touching the contaminated outer surface
Rationale: Proper glove removal prevents contamination of the hands
and surrounding environment.
5. Which position is generally appropriate for a client experiencing
dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. High Fowler's
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone
Answer: B. High Fowler's
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes lung expansion and
decreases the work of breathing.
6. A nurse is assisting a client to ambulate after surgery. Which
finding should cause the nurse to stop the activity?
,A. Mild incisional discomfort
B. Heart rate increasing from 76 to 84/min
C. New dizziness and pallor
D. Respiratory rate increasing from 16 to 20/min
Answer: C. New dizziness and pallor
Rationale: Dizziness and pallor may indicate orthostatic hypotension
or inadequate perfusion and warrant stopping the activity.
7. Which assessment is most important before administering an
opioid?
A. Skin turgor
B. Respiratory rate
C. Bowel sounds
D. Pupillary response
Answer: B. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression, making
respiratory assessment essential before administration.
8. Which finding indicates that a client may be developing
dehydration?
A. Moist mucous membranes
B. Increased urine output
C. Concentrated urine
D. Bounding pulse
Answer: C. Concentrated urine
Rationale: Dehydration commonly causes decreased urine output and
concentrated urine.
9. Which intervention helps prevent pressure injuries in an
immobile client?
, A. Massage reddened bony prominences
B. Reposition the client regularly
C. Keep the head of bed elevated continuously
D. Restrict fluid intake
Answer: B. Reposition the client regularly
Rationale: Regular repositioning relieves prolonged pressure and
helps maintain tissue perfusion.
10. A client has nonblanchable redness over the sacrum. How
should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Normal skin variation
B. Stage 1 pressure injury
C. Stage 2 pressure injury
D. Deep tissue injury
Answer: B. Stage 1 pressure injury
Rationale: Stage 1 pressure injury presents as intact skin with
persistent nonblanchable erythema.
11. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client
receiving oxygen?
A. Dry nasal passages
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Oxygen saturation of 96%
D. New confusion
Answer: D. New confusion
Rationale: New confusion can indicate hypoxemia or another acute
change requiring immediate assessment.
12. What is the best way to verify a client's identity before
medication administration?
