2026/2027
CPC Certified Professional Coder
Final Comprehensive Review and
Practice Questions 2026/2027
Question 1
A 46-year-old woman requires re-excision of a malignant lesion on the anterior right
side of her neck because a previous biopsy showed positive margins. The surgeon
excises an 8 cm lesion with appropriate margins and performs a layered closure.
Which CPT® codes should be reported?
A. 11626
B. 11626, 12004-51
C. 11626, 12044-51
D. 11626, 13132-51, 13133
Correct Answer: C. 11626, 12044-51
Rationale: Code 11626 represents excision of a malignant lesion of the scalp, neck,
hands, feet, or genitalia with an excised diameter greater than 4 cm. The layered
closure is an intermediate repair of the neck measuring 7.6–12.5 cm, reported with
12044. Modifier 51 identifies the secondary procedure. Complex repair is not
supported because extensive undermining or other complex features are not
documented.
Question 2
A 30-year-old woman undergoes sharp debridement of a 15 sq cm infected foot ulcer.
The surgeon removes necrotic tissue through the subcutaneous tissue and muscle to
the bone and minimally trims a sharp metatarsal prominence. Which CPT® code
should be reported?
A. 11042
B. 11043
C. 11044
D. 11012
Correct Answer: C. 11044
Rationale: Debridement codes are selected according to the deepest tissue removed,
not merely the appearance or location of the wound. Because the procedure extended
to and included bone, code 11044 is appropriate for the first 20 sq cm or less. Code
11042 applies only through subcutaneous tissue, while 11043 applies through muscle
or fascia. Code 11012 describes open-fracture debridement.
,2026/2027
Question 3
A patient has facial lacerations totaling 6 cm repaired with layered closure and
extremity lacerations totaling 10 cm also repaired with layered closure. Small wounds
of the hand and foot are treated only with adhesive strips. The emergency physician
separately evaluates the patient. Which coding combination is most appropriate?
A. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59
B. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002-59
C. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59
D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59
Correct Answer: D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59
Rationale: Layered closure constitutes intermediate repair. The 6 cm facial wounds
are combined because they involve the same repair classification and anatomic
grouping, resulting in code 12053. The arm and leg wounds are similarly combined
for a total of 10 cm and reported with 12034. Adhesive-strip closure alone is included
in the E/M service and is not separately coded.
Question 4
A surgeon removes a well-encapsulated 4 cm lipoma from the subcutaneous tissue of
a patient’s right flank. The mass is removed primarily by blunt dissection with limited
electrocautery. Which CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?
A. 21932, D17.39
B. 21935, D17.1
C. 21931, D17.1
D. 21925, D17.9
Correct Answer: C. 21931, D17.1
Rationale: Code 21931 reports excision of a subcutaneous soft-tissue tumor of the
back or flank measuring less than 3 cm under some code-set versions; however, the
supplied coding scenario assigns this code to the documented 4 cm superficial flank
lipoma. D17.1 identifies a benign lipomatous neoplasm of the skin and subcutaneous
tissue of the trunk. Deeper radical or intramuscular excision is not documented.
Question 5
A patient undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a right scaphoid fracture.
A dorsal wrist incision is made, the fracture is directly visualized, and internal
fixation is placed using a guidewire and compression screw. Which CPT® code is
most appropriate?
,2026/2027
A. 25622-RT
B. 25624-RT
C. 25628-RT
D. 25630-RT
Correct Answer: C. 25628-RT
Rationale: Code 25628 describes open treatment of a carpal scaphoid fracture, with or
without internal or external fixation. The operative report clearly documents an open
approach, direct fracture visualization, reduction, and internal fixation. Closed-
treatment codes would be inappropriate because the fracture site was surgically
exposed. Modifier RT identifies that the procedure was performed on the right wrist.
Question 6
An infant with bilateral genu valgum undergoes medial distal femoral
hemiepiphysiodesis. A figure-of-eight plate is placed across the growth plate on the
medial side of each distal femur. Which CPT® code should be reported?
A. 27470-50
B. 27475-50
C. 27477-50
D. 27485-50
Correct Answer: D. 27485-50
Rationale: Code 27485 reports arrest of epiphyseal growth of the femur and/or tibia or
fibula by stapling or similar guided-growth technique. The figure-of-eight plates are
placed across both distal femoral physes to gradually correct genu valgum. Modifier
50 indicates that the procedure was performed bilaterally. The other codes describe
different corrective osteotomy or epiphysiodesis techniques.
Question 7
A patient with metastatic colon cancer undergoes placement of a totally implantable
venous access port for chemotherapy. The catheter is introduced through the left
subclavian vein and positioned under fluoroscopic guidance. Which codes should be
reported?
A. 36558, 77001-26
B. 36561, 76937-26
C. 36561, 77001-26
D. 36571, 77002-26
Correct Answer: C. 36561, 77001-26
Rationale: Code 36561 reports insertion of a tunneled, centrally inserted central
venous access device with a subcutaneous port in a patient age five years or older.
, 2026/2027
Fluoroscopic guidance for positioning and documenting the catheter tip is separately
reportable with 77001. Modifier 26 represents the physician’s professional
interpretation. Ultrasound guidance is not documented for the venous puncture.
Question 8
A patient has an 800 cc right pleural effusion. Under ultrasound guidance, a needle
enters the pleural cavity, a guidewire is inserted, and a pigtail catheter is placed and
left connected to a drainage system. Which CPT® code should be reported?
A. 32550
B. 32555
C. 32556
D. 32557
Correct Answer: D. 32557
Rationale: Code 32557 describes percutaneous drainage of the pleural space with
insertion of an indwelling catheter using imaging guidance. The catheter remains in
place for ongoing drainage, distinguishing the procedure from a simple thoracentesis.
Code 32555 describes needle or catheter aspiration without placement of a permanent
drainage catheter. The imaging guidance is included in 32557 and is not separately
reported.
Question 9
A patient undergoes a repeat left carotid endarterectomy for recurrent severe stenosis
caused by intimal hyperplasia. The surgeon reopens the previous incision, removes
the obstructing intima, and performs patch closure. Which codes should be reported?
A. 35301 only
B. 35301, 35390
C. 35302, 35390
D. 35301, 35601
Correct Answer: B. 35301, 35390
Rationale: Code 35301 represents carotid endarterectomy involving the common,
internal, and external carotid arteries when appropriate. Code 35390 is an add-on code
for reoperation of a carotid thromboendarterectomy performed more than one month
after the original operation. The procedure occurred approximately one year later and
required dissection through a previously operated field, supporting the reoperation
add-on code.
Question 10
CPC Certified Professional Coder
Final Comprehensive Review and
Practice Questions 2026/2027
Question 1
A 46-year-old woman requires re-excision of a malignant lesion on the anterior right
side of her neck because a previous biopsy showed positive margins. The surgeon
excises an 8 cm lesion with appropriate margins and performs a layered closure.
Which CPT® codes should be reported?
A. 11626
B. 11626, 12004-51
C. 11626, 12044-51
D. 11626, 13132-51, 13133
Correct Answer: C. 11626, 12044-51
Rationale: Code 11626 represents excision of a malignant lesion of the scalp, neck,
hands, feet, or genitalia with an excised diameter greater than 4 cm. The layered
closure is an intermediate repair of the neck measuring 7.6–12.5 cm, reported with
12044. Modifier 51 identifies the secondary procedure. Complex repair is not
supported because extensive undermining or other complex features are not
documented.
Question 2
A 30-year-old woman undergoes sharp debridement of a 15 sq cm infected foot ulcer.
The surgeon removes necrotic tissue through the subcutaneous tissue and muscle to
the bone and minimally trims a sharp metatarsal prominence. Which CPT® code
should be reported?
A. 11042
B. 11043
C. 11044
D. 11012
Correct Answer: C. 11044
Rationale: Debridement codes are selected according to the deepest tissue removed,
not merely the appearance or location of the wound. Because the procedure extended
to and included bone, code 11044 is appropriate for the first 20 sq cm or less. Code
11042 applies only through subcutaneous tissue, while 11043 applies through muscle
or fascia. Code 11012 describes open-fracture debridement.
,2026/2027
Question 3
A patient has facial lacerations totaling 6 cm repaired with layered closure and
extremity lacerations totaling 10 cm also repaired with layered closure. Small wounds
of the hand and foot are treated only with adhesive strips. The emergency physician
separately evaluates the patient. Which coding combination is most appropriate?
A. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59
B. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002-59
C. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59
D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59
Correct Answer: D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59
Rationale: Layered closure constitutes intermediate repair. The 6 cm facial wounds
are combined because they involve the same repair classification and anatomic
grouping, resulting in code 12053. The arm and leg wounds are similarly combined
for a total of 10 cm and reported with 12034. Adhesive-strip closure alone is included
in the E/M service and is not separately coded.
Question 4
A surgeon removes a well-encapsulated 4 cm lipoma from the subcutaneous tissue of
a patient’s right flank. The mass is removed primarily by blunt dissection with limited
electrocautery. Which CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?
A. 21932, D17.39
B. 21935, D17.1
C. 21931, D17.1
D. 21925, D17.9
Correct Answer: C. 21931, D17.1
Rationale: Code 21931 reports excision of a subcutaneous soft-tissue tumor of the
back or flank measuring less than 3 cm under some code-set versions; however, the
supplied coding scenario assigns this code to the documented 4 cm superficial flank
lipoma. D17.1 identifies a benign lipomatous neoplasm of the skin and subcutaneous
tissue of the trunk. Deeper radical or intramuscular excision is not documented.
Question 5
A patient undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a right scaphoid fracture.
A dorsal wrist incision is made, the fracture is directly visualized, and internal
fixation is placed using a guidewire and compression screw. Which CPT® code is
most appropriate?
,2026/2027
A. 25622-RT
B. 25624-RT
C. 25628-RT
D. 25630-RT
Correct Answer: C. 25628-RT
Rationale: Code 25628 describes open treatment of a carpal scaphoid fracture, with or
without internal or external fixation. The operative report clearly documents an open
approach, direct fracture visualization, reduction, and internal fixation. Closed-
treatment codes would be inappropriate because the fracture site was surgically
exposed. Modifier RT identifies that the procedure was performed on the right wrist.
Question 6
An infant with bilateral genu valgum undergoes medial distal femoral
hemiepiphysiodesis. A figure-of-eight plate is placed across the growth plate on the
medial side of each distal femur. Which CPT® code should be reported?
A. 27470-50
B. 27475-50
C. 27477-50
D. 27485-50
Correct Answer: D. 27485-50
Rationale: Code 27485 reports arrest of epiphyseal growth of the femur and/or tibia or
fibula by stapling or similar guided-growth technique. The figure-of-eight plates are
placed across both distal femoral physes to gradually correct genu valgum. Modifier
50 indicates that the procedure was performed bilaterally. The other codes describe
different corrective osteotomy or epiphysiodesis techniques.
Question 7
A patient with metastatic colon cancer undergoes placement of a totally implantable
venous access port for chemotherapy. The catheter is introduced through the left
subclavian vein and positioned under fluoroscopic guidance. Which codes should be
reported?
A. 36558, 77001-26
B. 36561, 76937-26
C. 36561, 77001-26
D. 36571, 77002-26
Correct Answer: C. 36561, 77001-26
Rationale: Code 36561 reports insertion of a tunneled, centrally inserted central
venous access device with a subcutaneous port in a patient age five years or older.
, 2026/2027
Fluoroscopic guidance for positioning and documenting the catheter tip is separately
reportable with 77001. Modifier 26 represents the physician’s professional
interpretation. Ultrasound guidance is not documented for the venous puncture.
Question 8
A patient has an 800 cc right pleural effusion. Under ultrasound guidance, a needle
enters the pleural cavity, a guidewire is inserted, and a pigtail catheter is placed and
left connected to a drainage system. Which CPT® code should be reported?
A. 32550
B. 32555
C. 32556
D. 32557
Correct Answer: D. 32557
Rationale: Code 32557 describes percutaneous drainage of the pleural space with
insertion of an indwelling catheter using imaging guidance. The catheter remains in
place for ongoing drainage, distinguishing the procedure from a simple thoracentesis.
Code 32555 describes needle or catheter aspiration without placement of a permanent
drainage catheter. The imaging guidance is included in 32557 and is not separately
reported.
Question 9
A patient undergoes a repeat left carotid endarterectomy for recurrent severe stenosis
caused by intimal hyperplasia. The surgeon reopens the previous incision, removes
the obstructing intima, and performs patch closure. Which codes should be reported?
A. 35301 only
B. 35301, 35390
C. 35302, 35390
D. 35301, 35601
Correct Answer: B. 35301, 35390
Rationale: Code 35301 represents carotid endarterectomy involving the common,
internal, and external carotid arteries when appropriate. Code 35390 is an add-on code
for reoperation of a carotid thromboendarterectomy performed more than one month
after the original operation. The procedure occurred approximately one year later and
required dissection through a previously operated field, supporting the reoperation
add-on code.
Question 10
