ATI RN CMS Mastery Practice
Exam 2026–2027| Complete
Test Prep Practice Questions
With Answers & Detailed
Rationales |clinical Judgment
&Safety |A+ Rated
1.
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. 2+ bilateral ankle edema
B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hr
C. Oxygen saturation of 89%
D. Fatigue when ambulating
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 89%
An oxygen saturation below the expected range indicates
impaired oxygenation and requires immediate assessment
and intervention. The other findings are important
manifestations of worsening heart failure but are less
immediately threatening.
,2.
A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. Which position
should the nurse use to improve ventilation?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler's leaning forward
C. Trendelenburg
D. Left lateral
Answer: B. High-Fowler's leaning forward
Positioning the client upright and leaning slightly forward
facilitates diaphragmatic expansion and can reduce the work
of breathing.
3.
A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose of 52
mg/dL (2.9 mmol/L) and is awake and able to swallow. Which
action should the nurse take?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Administer glucagon IM
D. Restrict oral intake
Answer: B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
An alert client who can swallow should receive approximately
15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate, followed by reassessment
of blood glucose.
,4.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected pulmonary
embolism. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Sudden dyspnea
B. Productive cough
C. Bradycardia
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: A. Sudden dyspnea
Sudden unexplained dyspnea is a classic manifestation of
pulmonary embolism and requires immediate evaluation and
intervention.
5.
A client receiving IV potassium chloride reports burning at
the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
C. Apply a warm compress and continue
D. Flush the IV rapidly
Answer: B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
IV potassium is irritating to veins. Burning can indicate
infiltration or phlebitis. The infusion should be stopped and
the IV assessed.
6.
, Which finding is expected in a client who has chronic kidney
disease?
A. Increased erythropoietin production
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Anemia
D. Increased calcium absorption
Answer: C. Anemia
Decreased erythropoietin production by damaged kidneys
commonly causes anemia in chronic kidney disease.
7.
A nurse is caring for a client after a thyroidectomy. Which
finding requires immediate action?
A. Hoarse voice
B. Mild incisional pain
C. Stridor
D. Sore throat
Answer: C. Stridor
Stridor can indicate airway obstruction from edema or
bleeding and requires immediate intervention.
8.
A client with cirrhosis develops confusion and asterixis.
Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?
Exam 2026–2027| Complete
Test Prep Practice Questions
With Answers & Detailed
Rationales |clinical Judgment
&Safety |A+ Rated
1.
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. 2+ bilateral ankle edema
B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hr
C. Oxygen saturation of 89%
D. Fatigue when ambulating
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 89%
An oxygen saturation below the expected range indicates
impaired oxygenation and requires immediate assessment
and intervention. The other findings are important
manifestations of worsening heart failure but are less
immediately threatening.
,2.
A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. Which position
should the nurse use to improve ventilation?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler's leaning forward
C. Trendelenburg
D. Left lateral
Answer: B. High-Fowler's leaning forward
Positioning the client upright and leaning slightly forward
facilitates diaphragmatic expansion and can reduce the work
of breathing.
3.
A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose of 52
mg/dL (2.9 mmol/L) and is awake and able to swallow. Which
action should the nurse take?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Administer glucagon IM
D. Restrict oral intake
Answer: B. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
An alert client who can swallow should receive approximately
15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate, followed by reassessment
of blood glucose.
,4.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected pulmonary
embolism. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Sudden dyspnea
B. Productive cough
C. Bradycardia
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: A. Sudden dyspnea
Sudden unexplained dyspnea is a classic manifestation of
pulmonary embolism and requires immediate evaluation and
intervention.
5.
A client receiving IV potassium chloride reports burning at
the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
C. Apply a warm compress and continue
D. Flush the IV rapidly
Answer: B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
IV potassium is irritating to veins. Burning can indicate
infiltration or phlebitis. The infusion should be stopped and
the IV assessed.
6.
, Which finding is expected in a client who has chronic kidney
disease?
A. Increased erythropoietin production
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Anemia
D. Increased calcium absorption
Answer: C. Anemia
Decreased erythropoietin production by damaged kidneys
commonly causes anemia in chronic kidney disease.
7.
A nurse is caring for a client after a thyroidectomy. Which
finding requires immediate action?
A. Hoarse voice
B. Mild incisional pain
C. Stridor
D. Sore throat
Answer: C. Stridor
Stridor can indicate airway obstruction from edema or
bleeding and requires immediate intervention.
8.
A client with cirrhosis develops confusion and asterixis.
Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?
