All-Inclusive UPSC Civil Services Preliminary
Examination Mock Test: 150 Core Conceptual
Questions with Examiner's Insights
Question 1
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Constitution of India under Article
368:
1. A bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament or in
the State Legislatures.
2. The President must give their assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill and cannot withhold or
return the bill.
3. An amendment bill seeking to alter the federal character of the Constitution requires ratification
by the legislatures of all the states in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• A) 1 and 2 only
• B) 2 only
• C) 2 and 3 only
• D) 1, 2, and 3
• Correct Answer: B) 2 only
• Rationale: Statement 1 is incorrect because an amendment bill can only be introduced in either
House of Parliament, never in state legislatures. Statement 2 is correct because the 24th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a
Constitutional Amendment Bill. Statement 3 is incorrect because federal amendments require
ratification by the legislatures of half (not all) of the states by a simple majority.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: The amending process tests a candidate’s
understanding of India’s unique "flexible yet rigid" federal structure. What the examiner looks
for: The examiner is testing whether you can spot the subtle exaggeration ("all states" vs "half of
the states") and if you know the strict limitations placed on the President’s veto powers
regarding constitutional changes.
Question 2
Which of the following elements is/are considered part of the 'Basic Structure' of the Indian
Constitution as interpreted by the Supreme Court?
, 1. Judicial Review
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Free and fair elections
4. Absolute power of Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• A) 1 and 2 only
• B) 1, 2, and 3 only
• C) 3 and 4 only
• D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
• Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, and 3 only
• Rationale: Judicial Review (Kesavananda Bharati case), Secularism (SR Bommai case), and Free
and Fair Elections (Indira Nehru Gandhi case) are all recognized components of the Basic
Structure. Statement 4 is incorrect because the entire doctrine of Basic Structure explicitly
prevents Parliament from having absolute or unlimited power to amend or destroy the core
identity of the Constitution.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: The 'Basic Structure Doctrine' is the cornerstone of
Indian constitutional law and judicial activism. What the examiner looks for: Examiners look for
absolute or extreme phrasing like "absolute power." They want to see if the candidate
understands the fine balance of power between parliamentary sovereignty and judicial
supremacy in India.
Modern Indian History
Question 3
With reference to the Swadeshi Movement (1905–1908), consider the following statements:
1. It was triggered directly by the announcement of the Partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon.
2. The movement was strictly confined to the territorial boundaries of Bengal.
3. The National Council of Education was set up as part of the movement to promote indigenous
literary and technical education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• A) 1 only
• B) 1 and 3 only
• C) 2 and 3 only
, • D) 1, 2, and 3
• Correct Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
• Rationale: Statement 1 is correct as the movement arose as an anti-partition agitation.
Statement 3 is correct; the National Council of Education was established in 1906. Statement 2
is incorrect because, although it started in Bengal, leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat
Rai, and Chidambaram Pillai successfully spread the Swadeshi movement to Maharashtra,
Punjab, and Madras.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: The Swadeshi movement marks the birth of modern
mass politics in India and the split between Moderates and Extremists. What the examiner
looks for: The examiner uses geographical constraints ("strictly confined") to test your depth.
They want to ensure you don't confuse the origin of a historical event with its subsequent
geopolitical footprint.
Question 4
The Rowlatt Act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in 1919 aimed at:
• A) Introducing separate electorates for the depressed classes.
• B) Authorizing the government to imprison people without trial and summary suspension of
habeas corpus.
• C) Imposing strict censorship on vernacular newspapers and printing presses.
• D) Limiting the jurisdiction of Indian magistrates over European subjects.
• Correct Answer: B) Authorizing the government to imprison people without trial and summary
suspension of habeas corpus.
• Rationale: The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919 (Rowlatt Act) allowed the
British government to detain political activists without trial for up to two years. This sparked
nationwide outrage and led directly to Mahatma Gandhi launching the Rowlatt Satyagraha,
which tragically culminated in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: This is a crucial turning point that transformed
Mahatma Gandhi into a truly national leader. What the examiner looks for: The examiner tests
your clarity across different repressive colonial laws. They want to make sure you do not
confuse the Rowlatt Act with the Vernacular Press Act (Option C) or the Ilbert Bill controversy
(Option D).
Geography & Environment
Question 5
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)':
, 1. A positive IOD characteristically features warmer-than-normal sea surface temperatures in the
western Indian Ocean near Africa.
2. A positive IOD generally intensifies and brings beneficial rainfall to the Indian Southwest
Monsoon.
3. The phenomenon of IOD is completely independent of and has no atmospheric interaction with
the Pacific El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• A) 1 only
• B) 1 and 2 only
• C) 2 and 3 only
• D) 1, 2, and 3
• Correct Answer: B) 1 and 2 only
• Rationale: Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct; a positive IOD means warmer western
Indian Ocean waters, which fuels atmospheric convection and enhances rain over India.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the IOD and ENSO are deeply linked; an El Niño in the Pacific
often triggers a positive IOD in the Indian Ocean, modulating each other's global impacts.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: Monsoonal variations directly impact India’s
agricultural GDP and food security. What the examiner looks for: The examiner checks if your
scientific understanding is holistic. Words like "completely independent" are red flags. Earth
systems are interconnected, and the examiner wants to weed out candidates who memorize
concepts in isolated silos.
Question 6
Which of the following schedules or mechanisms under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 (including
subsequent amendments) grants the highest legal protection to endangered species, making their
hunting a punishable offense with the highest penalties?
• A) Schedule I
• B) Schedule II
• C) Vermin Category Declaration
• D) Ex-post facto State Government Exemption Lists
• Correct Answer: A) Schedule I
• Rationale: Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, species listed under Schedule I (such as the
Tiger, Lion, Great Indian Bustard, and One-horned Rhinoceros) receive absolute protection.
Offences against these species attract the harshest legal penalties and fines.
Examination Mock Test: 150 Core Conceptual
Questions with Examiner's Insights
Question 1
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Constitution of India under Article
368:
1. A bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament or in
the State Legislatures.
2. The President must give their assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill and cannot withhold or
return the bill.
3. An amendment bill seeking to alter the federal character of the Constitution requires ratification
by the legislatures of all the states in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• A) 1 and 2 only
• B) 2 only
• C) 2 and 3 only
• D) 1, 2, and 3
• Correct Answer: B) 2 only
• Rationale: Statement 1 is incorrect because an amendment bill can only be introduced in either
House of Parliament, never in state legislatures. Statement 2 is correct because the 24th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a
Constitutional Amendment Bill. Statement 3 is incorrect because federal amendments require
ratification by the legislatures of half (not all) of the states by a simple majority.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: The amending process tests a candidate’s
understanding of India’s unique "flexible yet rigid" federal structure. What the examiner looks
for: The examiner is testing whether you can spot the subtle exaggeration ("all states" vs "half of
the states") and if you know the strict limitations placed on the President’s veto powers
regarding constitutional changes.
Question 2
Which of the following elements is/are considered part of the 'Basic Structure' of the Indian
Constitution as interpreted by the Supreme Court?
, 1. Judicial Review
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Free and fair elections
4. Absolute power of Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• A) 1 and 2 only
• B) 1, 2, and 3 only
• C) 3 and 4 only
• D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
• Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, and 3 only
• Rationale: Judicial Review (Kesavananda Bharati case), Secularism (SR Bommai case), and Free
and Fair Elections (Indira Nehru Gandhi case) are all recognized components of the Basic
Structure. Statement 4 is incorrect because the entire doctrine of Basic Structure explicitly
prevents Parliament from having absolute or unlimited power to amend or destroy the core
identity of the Constitution.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: The 'Basic Structure Doctrine' is the cornerstone of
Indian constitutional law and judicial activism. What the examiner looks for: Examiners look for
absolute or extreme phrasing like "absolute power." They want to see if the candidate
understands the fine balance of power between parliamentary sovereignty and judicial
supremacy in India.
Modern Indian History
Question 3
With reference to the Swadeshi Movement (1905–1908), consider the following statements:
1. It was triggered directly by the announcement of the Partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon.
2. The movement was strictly confined to the territorial boundaries of Bengal.
3. The National Council of Education was set up as part of the movement to promote indigenous
literary and technical education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• A) 1 only
• B) 1 and 3 only
• C) 2 and 3 only
, • D) 1, 2, and 3
• Correct Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
• Rationale: Statement 1 is correct as the movement arose as an anti-partition agitation.
Statement 3 is correct; the National Council of Education was established in 1906. Statement 2
is incorrect because, although it started in Bengal, leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat
Rai, and Chidambaram Pillai successfully spread the Swadeshi movement to Maharashtra,
Punjab, and Madras.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: The Swadeshi movement marks the birth of modern
mass politics in India and the split between Moderates and Extremists. What the examiner
looks for: The examiner uses geographical constraints ("strictly confined") to test your depth.
They want to ensure you don't confuse the origin of a historical event with its subsequent
geopolitical footprint.
Question 4
The Rowlatt Act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in 1919 aimed at:
• A) Introducing separate electorates for the depressed classes.
• B) Authorizing the government to imprison people without trial and summary suspension of
habeas corpus.
• C) Imposing strict censorship on vernacular newspapers and printing presses.
• D) Limiting the jurisdiction of Indian magistrates over European subjects.
• Correct Answer: B) Authorizing the government to imprison people without trial and summary
suspension of habeas corpus.
• Rationale: The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919 (Rowlatt Act) allowed the
British government to detain political activists without trial for up to two years. This sparked
nationwide outrage and led directly to Mahatma Gandhi launching the Rowlatt Satyagraha,
which tragically culminated in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: This is a crucial turning point that transformed
Mahatma Gandhi into a truly national leader. What the examiner looks for: The examiner tests
your clarity across different repressive colonial laws. They want to make sure you do not
confuse the Rowlatt Act with the Vernacular Press Act (Option C) or the Ilbert Bill controversy
(Option D).
Geography & Environment
Question 5
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)':
, 1. A positive IOD characteristically features warmer-than-normal sea surface temperatures in the
western Indian Ocean near Africa.
2. A positive IOD generally intensifies and brings beneficial rainfall to the Indian Southwest
Monsoon.
3. The phenomenon of IOD is completely independent of and has no atmospheric interaction with
the Pacific El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• A) 1 only
• B) 1 and 2 only
• C) 2 and 3 only
• D) 1, 2, and 3
• Correct Answer: B) 1 and 2 only
• Rationale: Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct; a positive IOD means warmer western
Indian Ocean waters, which fuels atmospheric convection and enhances rain over India.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the IOD and ENSO are deeply linked; an El Niño in the Pacific
often triggers a positive IOD in the Indian Ocean, modulating each other's global impacts.
• Examiner's Remark: Why it is tested: Monsoonal variations directly impact India’s
agricultural GDP and food security. What the examiner looks for: The examiner checks if your
scientific understanding is holistic. Words like "completely independent" are red flags. Earth
systems are interconnected, and the examiner wants to weed out candidates who memorize
concepts in isolated silos.
Question 6
Which of the following schedules or mechanisms under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 (including
subsequent amendments) grants the highest legal protection to endangered species, making their
hunting a punishable offense with the highest penalties?
• A) Schedule I
• B) Schedule II
• C) Vermin Category Declaration
• D) Ex-post facto State Government Exemption Lists
• Correct Answer: A) Schedule I
• Rationale: Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, species listed under Schedule I (such as the
Tiger, Lion, Great Indian Bustard, and One-horned Rhinoceros) receive absolute protection.
Offences against these species attract the harshest legal penalties and fines.
