NRNP 6531 ADVANCED PRACTICE
CARE OF ADULTS EXAM REVIEW
(VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with a mid-systolic ejection murmur heard best at the
second right intercostal space, radiating to the carotid arteries. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Mitral Regurgitation
B. Aortic Stenosis
C. Aortic Regurgitation
D. Mitral Stenosis
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Aortic stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic ejection
murmur at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the neck/carotids.
2. According to the GOLD criteria, which spirometry finding is required to confirm the
diagnosis of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
A. FVC < 70% predicted
B. Pre-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.80
,C. FEV1 > 80% predicted
D. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The GOLD guidelines require a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC
ratio of less than 0.70 to establish a diagnosis of persistent airflow limitation.
3. Which of the following is the most sensitive laboratory marker for the diagnosis of iron
deficiency anemia?
A. Serum Iron
B. Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
C. Hemoglobin level
D. Serum Ferritin
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Serum ferritin is the most sensitive and specific test for
identifying iron deficiency, as it reflects total body iron stores.
4. A 55-year-old male with a history of heart failure and an eGFR of 25 mL/min/1.73m²
requires management for Type 2 Diabetes. Which medication is contraindicated?
A. Linagliptin
B. Metformin
C. Glipizide
, D. Insulin
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with an eGFR less than
30 mL/min/1.73m² due to the risk of lactic acidosis.
5. A patient presents with a ‘curtain dropping’ sensation over their vision that resolved within
15 minutes. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassurance that it was a migraine
B. Perform a tonometry test for glaucoma
C. Prescribe lubricating eye drops
D. Urgent referral for carotid ultrasound and neurology evaluation
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Amaurosis fugax is often a sign of transient ischemic attack
(TIA) caused by carotid artery emboli and requires urgent vascular workup.
6. What is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild to moderate Hidradenitis
Suppurativa (Hurley Stage I)?
A. Oral Isotretinoin
B. Topical Clindamycin
C. Intravenous Infliximab
D. Surgical excision
CARE OF ADULTS EXAM REVIEW
(VERIFIED AND CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED 2026/2027
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with a mid-systolic ejection murmur heard best at the
second right intercostal space, radiating to the carotid arteries. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Mitral Regurgitation
B. Aortic Stenosis
C. Aortic Regurgitation
D. Mitral Stenosis
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Aortic stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic ejection
murmur at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the neck/carotids.
2. According to the GOLD criteria, which spirometry finding is required to confirm the
diagnosis of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
A. FVC < 70% predicted
B. Pre-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.80
,C. FEV1 > 80% predicted
D. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The GOLD guidelines require a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC
ratio of less than 0.70 to establish a diagnosis of persistent airflow limitation.
3. Which of the following is the most sensitive laboratory marker for the diagnosis of iron
deficiency anemia?
A. Serum Iron
B. Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
C. Hemoglobin level
D. Serum Ferritin
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Serum ferritin is the most sensitive and specific test for
identifying iron deficiency, as it reflects total body iron stores.
4. A 55-year-old male with a history of heart failure and an eGFR of 25 mL/min/1.73m²
requires management for Type 2 Diabetes. Which medication is contraindicated?
A. Linagliptin
B. Metformin
C. Glipizide
, D. Insulin
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with an eGFR less than
30 mL/min/1.73m² due to the risk of lactic acidosis.
5. A patient presents with a ‘curtain dropping’ sensation over their vision that resolved within
15 minutes. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassurance that it was a migraine
B. Perform a tonometry test for glaucoma
C. Prescribe lubricating eye drops
D. Urgent referral for carotid ultrasound and neurology evaluation
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Amaurosis fugax is often a sign of transient ischemic attack
(TIA) caused by carotid artery emboli and requires urgent vascular workup.
6. What is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild to moderate Hidradenitis
Suppurativa (Hurley Stage I)?
A. Oral Isotretinoin
B. Topical Clindamycin
C. Intravenous Infliximab
D. Surgical excision
