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DIAMOND ESSENTIALS GEM GUIDEWITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
DIAMOND ESSENTIALS GEM: 200 PHARMACOLOGY MCQs WITH OPTIONS
1. ADME stands for? A) Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion B) Absorption,
Digestion, Metabolism, Elimination C) Active, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion D)
Absorption, Distribution, Motility, Excretion. Ans A.
2. First-pass metabolism is? A) Hepatic breakdown before systemic circulation B) Renal
excretion C) Plasma binding D) Lung elimination. Ans A.
3. Bioavailability is? A) Fraction of dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged B)
Volume of plasma cleared C) Time to half concentration D) Protein binding percentage.
Ans A.
4. Volume of distribution is? A) Theoretical volume relating drug amount to plasma
concentration B) Rate of elimination C) Amount excreted in urine D) Receptor affinity.
Ans A.
5. Drug half-life is? A) Time for plasma concentration to fall by 50% B) Time for
complete elimination C) Time to peak effect D) Time to absorption. Ans A.
6. Clearance is? A) Volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time B) Amount of drug
in body C) Half-life × volume D) Dose divided by bioavailability. Ans A.
7. Zero-order elimination is? A) Constant amount eliminated per unit time B) Constant
fraction eliminated per unit time C) Exponential decay D) First-pass removal. Ans A.
8. First-order elimination is? A) Constant fraction eliminated per unit time B) Constant
amount eliminated per unit time C) Saturated elimination D) Zero clearance. Ans A.
9. Therapeutic index is? A) Toxic dose / effective dose B) Effective dose / toxic dose C)
Clearance / volume D) Half-life / dose. Ans A.
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10. An agonist is? A) Binds receptor and activates response B) Blocks receptor C)
Inactivates enzyme D) Chelates metal. Ans A.
11. A partial agonist is? A) Produces submaximal response at full occupancy B)
Produces maximal response C) Blocks all response D) Irreversibly inhibits enzyme. Ans
A.
12. An antagonist is? A) Binds receptor and blocks agonist action B) Activates receptor
C) Increases efficacy D) Mimics endogenous ligand. Ans A.
13. Competitive antagonist is? A) Reversible blocker overcome by more agonist B)
Irreversible blocker C) Reduces maximal efficacy D) Allosteric activator. Ans A.
14. Noncompetitive antagonist is? A) Reduces maximal agonist efficacy B) Overcome
by more agonist C) Binds same site reversibly D) Increases potency. Ans A.
15. Potency versus efficacy? A) Potency is dose for effect; efficacy is maximal effect B)
Potency is maximal effect; efficacy is dose C) Both mean same D) Potency is toxicity. Ans
A.
16. Loading dose is? A) Initial larger dose to rapidly achieve therapeutic level B)
Maintenance dose C) Toxic dose D) Half dose. Ans A.
17. Maintenance dose is? A) Dose to sustain therapeutic concentration B) Initial bolus
C) Antidote dose D) Loading dose. Ans A.
18. Protein binding is? A) Drug attachment to plasma proteins reducing free drug B)
Renal secretion C) Hepatic conjugation D) Receptor binding. Ans A.
19. Common CYP450 inducer? A) Rifampin B) Ketoconazole C) Erythromycin D)
Grapefruit juice. Ans A.
20. Common CYP450 inhibitor? A) Ketoconazole B) Rifampin C) Carbamazepine D)
Phenytoin. Ans A.
21. Muscarinic agonist effects include? A) Bradycardia, miosis, salivation B)
Tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mouth C) Hypertension, sweating D) Bronchodilation, urinary
retention. Ans A.
22. Atropine is? A) Muscarinic antagonist B) Nicotinic agonist C) Cholinesterase
inhibitor D) Beta agonist. Ans A.
DIAMOND ESSENTIALS GEM GUIDEWITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
DIAMOND ESSENTIALS GEM: 200 PHARMACOLOGY MCQs WITH OPTIONS
1. ADME stands for? A) Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion B) Absorption,
Digestion, Metabolism, Elimination C) Active, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion D)
Absorption, Distribution, Motility, Excretion. Ans A.
2. First-pass metabolism is? A) Hepatic breakdown before systemic circulation B) Renal
excretion C) Plasma binding D) Lung elimination. Ans A.
3. Bioavailability is? A) Fraction of dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged B)
Volume of plasma cleared C) Time to half concentration D) Protein binding percentage.
Ans A.
4. Volume of distribution is? A) Theoretical volume relating drug amount to plasma
concentration B) Rate of elimination C) Amount excreted in urine D) Receptor affinity.
Ans A.
5. Drug half-life is? A) Time for plasma concentration to fall by 50% B) Time for
complete elimination C) Time to peak effect D) Time to absorption. Ans A.
6. Clearance is? A) Volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time B) Amount of drug
in body C) Half-life × volume D) Dose divided by bioavailability. Ans A.
7. Zero-order elimination is? A) Constant amount eliminated per unit time B) Constant
fraction eliminated per unit time C) Exponential decay D) First-pass removal. Ans A.
8. First-order elimination is? A) Constant fraction eliminated per unit time B) Constant
amount eliminated per unit time C) Saturated elimination D) Zero clearance. Ans A.
9. Therapeutic index is? A) Toxic dose / effective dose B) Effective dose / toxic dose C)
Clearance / volume D) Half-life / dose. Ans A.
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10. An agonist is? A) Binds receptor and activates response B) Blocks receptor C)
Inactivates enzyme D) Chelates metal. Ans A.
11. A partial agonist is? A) Produces submaximal response at full occupancy B)
Produces maximal response C) Blocks all response D) Irreversibly inhibits enzyme. Ans
A.
12. An antagonist is? A) Binds receptor and blocks agonist action B) Activates receptor
C) Increases efficacy D) Mimics endogenous ligand. Ans A.
13. Competitive antagonist is? A) Reversible blocker overcome by more agonist B)
Irreversible blocker C) Reduces maximal efficacy D) Allosteric activator. Ans A.
14. Noncompetitive antagonist is? A) Reduces maximal agonist efficacy B) Overcome
by more agonist C) Binds same site reversibly D) Increases potency. Ans A.
15. Potency versus efficacy? A) Potency is dose for effect; efficacy is maximal effect B)
Potency is maximal effect; efficacy is dose C) Both mean same D) Potency is toxicity. Ans
A.
16. Loading dose is? A) Initial larger dose to rapidly achieve therapeutic level B)
Maintenance dose C) Toxic dose D) Half dose. Ans A.
17. Maintenance dose is? A) Dose to sustain therapeutic concentration B) Initial bolus
C) Antidote dose D) Loading dose. Ans A.
18. Protein binding is? A) Drug attachment to plasma proteins reducing free drug B)
Renal secretion C) Hepatic conjugation D) Receptor binding. Ans A.
19. Common CYP450 inducer? A) Rifampin B) Ketoconazole C) Erythromycin D)
Grapefruit juice. Ans A.
20. Common CYP450 inhibitor? A) Ketoconazole B) Rifampin C) Carbamazepine D)
Phenytoin. Ans A.
21. Muscarinic agonist effects include? A) Bradycardia, miosis, salivation B)
Tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mouth C) Hypertension, sweating D) Bronchodilation, urinary
retention. Ans A.
22. Atropine is? A) Muscarinic antagonist B) Nicotinic agonist C) Cholinesterase
inhibitor D) Beta agonist. Ans A.
