ATI PN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | GRADE A+
CORE DOMAINS
• Antepartum Care and Fetal Development
• Intrapartum Care and Labor Complications
• Postpartum Assessment and Complications
• Newborn Assessment and Immediate Care
• High-Risk Pregnancy and Obstetric Emergencies
• Maternal-Newborn Pharmacology and Medication Safety
• Patient Education and Health Promotion
• Cultural Competence and Family-Centered Care
• NGN Unfolding Case Studies: Clinical Judgment
INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive examination is designed for practical nursing students
preparing for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam. It contains
verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales covering the
core domains of maternal-newborn nursing. The examination mirrors the
actual ATI proctored exam format, including Next Generation NCLEX
(NGN) style unfolding case studies that assess clinical judgment. Each
question is accompanied by a detailed rationale to reinforce understanding
of maternal-newborn concepts and safe clinical decision-making.
SECTION ONE: ANTEPARTUM CARE AND FETAL DEVELOPMENT
1. A client at 12 weeks of gestation asks the nurse when she should
expect to feel fetal movement. Which response by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. "You should feel movement by 16 weeks."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
,C. "You will feel movement at 24 weeks."
D. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
RATIONALE: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, is
typically felt between 18 and 20 weeks of gestation in primigravida clients.
Multiparous clients may feel it earlier, around 16 weeks. This is a normal
developmental milestone.
2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about folic acid supplementation
with a client who is planning to become pregnant. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. "I will start taking folic acid after I confirm my pregnancy."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
C. "I only need folic acid if I have a family history of birth defects."
D. "Folic acid should be taken only in the third trimester."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
RATIONALE: Folic acid is essential for preventing neural tube defects
such as spina bifida and anencephaly. It should be taken before conception
and during early pregnancy, ideally 400 mcg daily.
3. A client at 28 weeks of gestation reports heartburn. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. "Eat large meals to reduce stomach acid."
B. "Lie down immediately after eating."
C. "Eat small, frequent meals and avoid spicy foods."
D. "Drink fluids with meals to dilute stomach acid."
C. "Eat small, frequent meals and avoid spicy foods."
RATIONALE: Heartburn in pregnancy is caused by decreased
gastrointestinal motility and pressure from the growing uterus. Small,
frequent meals and avoiding trigger foods help reduce symptoms. Lying
down after meals worsens reflux.
,4. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks of gestation. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
B. Fetal heart rate 140 bpm
C. Visual disturbances and severe headache
D. Mild ankle edema
C. Visual disturbances and severe headache
RATIONALE: Visual disturbances and severe headache are warning
signs of preeclampsia, a serious complication that can progress to
eclampsia. Immediate intervention is required. Mild ankle edema and
normal vital signs are expected findings.
5. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
B. "Drink large amounts of water with meals."
C. "Avoid all carbohydrates."
D. "Take antiemetics only at bedtime."
A. "Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
RATIONALE: Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (morning sickness) is
best managed with small, frequent meals to prevent an empty stomach.
Dry crackers before rising may also help.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about prenatal visits. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. "I will have visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks."
B. "I will have visits every 2 weeks until 36 weeks."
C. "I will have weekly visits starting at 20 weeks."
D. "I only need one visit in the first trimester."
A. "I will have visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks."
RATIONALE: The standard prenatal visit schedule is every 4 weeks
, until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and weekly until delivery.
This allows for monitoring of maternal and fetal well-being.
7. A client at 32 weeks of gestation is Rh-negative and has a negative
indirect Coombs test. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after delivery.
C. No intervention is needed.
D. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 36 weeks.
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
RATIONALE: Rh-negative clients receive Rho(D) immune globulin at 28
weeks of gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-
positive. This prevents Rh sensitization.
8. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fundal height at the umbilicus
B. Fetal heart rate 150 bpm
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
D. Mild breast tenderness
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
RATIONALE: A blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher may indicate
gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, requiring further evaluation.
Fundal height at the umbilicus at 20 weeks is expected.
9. A client at 8 weeks of gestation reports urinary frequency. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "This is a sign of a urinary tract infection."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
C. "You should restrict fluids to prevent this."
D. "This will resolve after 12 weeks."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
RATIONALE: Urinary frequency in early pregnancy is due to increased
VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | GRADE A+
CORE DOMAINS
• Antepartum Care and Fetal Development
• Intrapartum Care and Labor Complications
• Postpartum Assessment and Complications
• Newborn Assessment and Immediate Care
• High-Risk Pregnancy and Obstetric Emergencies
• Maternal-Newborn Pharmacology and Medication Safety
• Patient Education and Health Promotion
• Cultural Competence and Family-Centered Care
• NGN Unfolding Case Studies: Clinical Judgment
INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive examination is designed for practical nursing students
preparing for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam. It contains
verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales covering the
core domains of maternal-newborn nursing. The examination mirrors the
actual ATI proctored exam format, including Next Generation NCLEX
(NGN) style unfolding case studies that assess clinical judgment. Each
question is accompanied by a detailed rationale to reinforce understanding
of maternal-newborn concepts and safe clinical decision-making.
SECTION ONE: ANTEPARTUM CARE AND FETAL DEVELOPMENT
1. A client at 12 weeks of gestation asks the nurse when she should
expect to feel fetal movement. Which response by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. "You should feel movement by 16 weeks."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
,C. "You will feel movement at 24 weeks."
D. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
RATIONALE: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, is
typically felt between 18 and 20 weeks of gestation in primigravida clients.
Multiparous clients may feel it earlier, around 16 weeks. This is a normal
developmental milestone.
2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about folic acid supplementation
with a client who is planning to become pregnant. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. "I will start taking folic acid after I confirm my pregnancy."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
C. "I only need folic acid if I have a family history of birth defects."
D. "Folic acid should be taken only in the third trimester."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
RATIONALE: Folic acid is essential for preventing neural tube defects
such as spina bifida and anencephaly. It should be taken before conception
and during early pregnancy, ideally 400 mcg daily.
3. A client at 28 weeks of gestation reports heartburn. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. "Eat large meals to reduce stomach acid."
B. "Lie down immediately after eating."
C. "Eat small, frequent meals and avoid spicy foods."
D. "Drink fluids with meals to dilute stomach acid."
C. "Eat small, frequent meals and avoid spicy foods."
RATIONALE: Heartburn in pregnancy is caused by decreased
gastrointestinal motility and pressure from the growing uterus. Small,
frequent meals and avoiding trigger foods help reduce symptoms. Lying
down after meals worsens reflux.
,4. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks of gestation. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
B. Fetal heart rate 140 bpm
C. Visual disturbances and severe headache
D. Mild ankle edema
C. Visual disturbances and severe headache
RATIONALE: Visual disturbances and severe headache are warning
signs of preeclampsia, a serious complication that can progress to
eclampsia. Immediate intervention is required. Mild ankle edema and
normal vital signs are expected findings.
5. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
B. "Drink large amounts of water with meals."
C. "Avoid all carbohydrates."
D. "Take antiemetics only at bedtime."
A. "Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
RATIONALE: Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (morning sickness) is
best managed with small, frequent meals to prevent an empty stomach.
Dry crackers before rising may also help.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about prenatal visits. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. "I will have visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks."
B. "I will have visits every 2 weeks until 36 weeks."
C. "I will have weekly visits starting at 20 weeks."
D. "I only need one visit in the first trimester."
A. "I will have visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks."
RATIONALE: The standard prenatal visit schedule is every 4 weeks
, until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and weekly until delivery.
This allows for monitoring of maternal and fetal well-being.
7. A client at 32 weeks of gestation is Rh-negative and has a negative
indirect Coombs test. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after delivery.
C. No intervention is needed.
D. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 36 weeks.
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
RATIONALE: Rh-negative clients receive Rho(D) immune globulin at 28
weeks of gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-
positive. This prevents Rh sensitization.
8. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fundal height at the umbilicus
B. Fetal heart rate 150 bpm
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
D. Mild breast tenderness
C. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
RATIONALE: A blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher may indicate
gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, requiring further evaluation.
Fundal height at the umbilicus at 20 weeks is expected.
9. A client at 8 weeks of gestation reports urinary frequency. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "This is a sign of a urinary tract infection."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
C. "You should restrict fluids to prevent this."
D. "This will resolve after 12 weeks."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
RATIONALE: Urinary frequency in early pregnancy is due to increased
