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Nsg6005 Advanced Pharmacology Exam 1 South University (Correct Q & A) Satisfaction Guaranteed

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NSG6005 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 SOUTH UNIVERSITY (CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION GUARANTEED

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NSG6005 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
EXAM 1 SOUTH UNIVERSITY
(CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION
GUARANTEED


1. A patient with chronic renal failure requires a drug that is primarily excreted by the

kidneys. How should the clinician adjust the dosage to prevent toxicity?

A. Increase the loading dose and maintain the interval.


B. Maintain the standard dose but monitor plasma levels monthly.


C. Switch to an oral route to bypass first-pass metabolism.


D. Decrease the dose or increase the dosing interval.


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: In renal impairment, clearance is reduced. To prevent

accumulation and toxicity, either the individual dose must be decreased or the time

between doses must be increased.


2. Which of the following describes the ‘first-pass effect’ in pharmacokinetics?

A. The rapid distribution of a drug to highly vascularized organs.


B. The excretion of a drug through the biliary system in the first hour.


C. The initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.

,D. The binding of a drug to albumin immediately after absorption.


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: The first-pass effect occurs when an oral drug is absorbed from

the GI tract and enters the portal circulation, where the liver metabolizes a significant

portion before it reaches the systemic blood flow.


3. A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. How long will it take for the drug to reach steady-state

concentration in the plasma?

A. 6 hours


B. 12 to 18 hours


C. 24 to 30 hours


D. 48 to 60 hours


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Steady state is generally reached after approximately 4 to 5 half-

lives. 6 hours x 4 = 24 hours; 6 hours x 5 = 30 hours.


4. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is responsible for metabolizing approximately 50 percent

of all prescribed drugs?

A. CYP2D6


B. CYP1A2


C. CYP2C19

, D. CYP3A4


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: CYP3A4 is the most abundant CYP enzyme in the liver and is

involved in the metabolism of about half of all clinically used medications.


5. A patient is taking Warfarin (a CYP2C9 substrate) and starts a new medication that is a

potent CYP2C9 inducer. What is the most likely clinical outcome?

A. The INR will increase, leading to a higher risk of bleeding.


B. Warfarin toxicity will occur due to inhibited metabolism.


C. There will be no change in the INR.


D. The INR will decrease, leading to a higher risk of blood clots.


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Inducers increase the activity of metabolic enzymes, leading to

faster breakdown of the substrate drug (Warfarin). This lowers the drug’s plasma

concentration and therapeutic effect (lower INR).


6. What is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating hypertension?

A. Directly blocking the Angiotensin II receptors.


B. Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II.


C. Inhibiting the release of renin from the kidneys.


D. Antagonizing the effects of aldosterone in the distal tubule.

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