Nursing Pharmacology Test Bank: Lehne's
Pharmacology for Nursing Care 12th
Edition Practice Question
Unit I: General Principles of Pharmacology
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a drug that has a narrow therapeutic index. Which of the
following actions is most important for the nurse to take?
A. Administer the drug with food to reduce gastric irritation.
B. Monitor the patient closely for therapeutic and toxic effects.
C. Teach the patient to double the dose if a dose is missed.
D. Assess the patient's renal function every 48 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means the difference between a therapeutic dose
and a toxic dose is very small. Therefore, the nurse must monitor the patient closely for both
desired effects and signs of toxicity. Option A is not necessarily true for all narrow-TI drugs.
Option C is dangerous. Option D is important for some drugs but is not the most immediate and
critical action related to the narrow therapeutic index itself.
2. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of a drug's half-life (t½)?
A. The time it takes for the drug to reach its peak plasma concentration.
B. The time it takes for the drug to be completely eliminated from the body.
C. The time it takes for the amount of drug in the body to be reduced by 50%.
D. The time it takes for the drug to produce its maximum therapeutic effect.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Half-life is defined as the time required for the amount of drug in the body to
decrease by half. Option A describes Tmax. Option B describes elimination, which takes
approximately 4-5 half-lives. Option D describes the onset of action.
3. A patient asks the nurse why they need to take a generic drug instead of a brand-name
drug. Which of the following is the most accurate response?
A. "Generic drugs are always safer than brand-name drugs."
B. "Generic drugs are required to be chemically identical to the brand-name drug."
C. "Generic drugs are less expensive but may have different inactive ingredients."
D. "Generic drugs are not as effective as brand-name drugs."
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Generic drugs contain the same active ingredient as the brand-name drug and
are bioequivalent, but they can differ in inactive ingredients (excipients), which can affect things
like taste or color. They are generally less expensive. They are not always safer, nor are they
chemically identical (they are bioequivalent, not necessarily identical in every aspect of
manufacturing). They are considered equally effective.
4. A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list. Which of the following is a priority when
assessing for potential drug interactions?
A. The color of the pills.
B. The patient's favorite food.
C. The patient's use of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs and herbal supplements.
D. The time of day the patient takes their medications.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: OTC drugs and herbal supplements can interact with prescription medications,
leading to altered effects or toxicity. This is a critical part of a medication reconciliation. The
other options are not primary concerns for drug interactions.
5. Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for adverse drug reactions?
A. A 25-year-old male with a sprained ankle.
B. A 45-year-old female with hypertension.
C. A 78-year-old male with renal impairment and polypharmacy.
D. A 10-year-old child with an ear infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Older adults, especially those with organ impairment (like renal impairment) and
those taking multiple medications (polypharmacy), are at a significantly increased risk for
adverse drug reactions due to age-related changes in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.
6. A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription. Which of the following statements
by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will take my medication at the same time every day."
B. "I will stop taking the medication as soon as I feel better."
C. "I will check with my pharmacist before taking any new OTC medications."
D. "I will report any unusual side effects to my doctor."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients should be taught to complete the full course of therapy as prescribed,
,especially for anti-infectives, and to not stop abruptly, particularly for drugs like antidepressants
or corticosteroids. Feeling better does not mean the condition is fully resolved.
7. SATA: Which of the following factors can affect a patient's response to a drug? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Age
B. Body weight
C. Genetic makeup
D. Time of day
E. Patient's hair color
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Age, body weight, genetic makeup (pharmacogenomics), and circadian rhythms
(time of day) can all influence drug response. Hair color is not a recognized factor in drug
response.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via the intravenous (IV) route. Which of the
following is a primary advantage of this route?
A. It is the safest route.
B. It provides the most rapid onset of action.
C. It is the least expensive route.
D. It is the easiest route for self-administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The IV route bypasses the absorption process, leading to the most rapid onset of
action and 100% bioavailability. It is not the safest (due to risk of infection, embolism,
anaphylaxis), nor the least expensive, nor for self-administration.
9. Which of the following describes a drug's "peak effect"?
A. The time it takes for the drug to start working.
B. The maximum therapeutic response a drug can produce.
C. The time it takes for the drug to be eliminated.
D. The point at which the drug's concentration is highest in the blood.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Peak effect is the time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum concentration in
the bloodstream, which often corresponds to the maximum therapeutic effect. Option B
describes efficacy.
10. A patient is prescribed a drug that is a potent inducer of cytochrome P450 enzymes. The
nurse should monitor for which of the following?
, A. Increased effects of other drugs metabolized by this system.
B. Decreased effects of other drugs metabolized by this system.
C. Increased risk of toxicity from the inducing drug.
D. No change in the effects of other drugs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Enzyme inducers increase the metabolism of other drugs metabolized by the
same enzymes, leading to decreased effects of those other drugs.
11. Which of the following is the best example of a drug's generic name?
A. Tylenol
B. Acetaminophen
C. Motrin
D. Advil
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the generic (non-proprietary) name. Tylenol is a brand
(proprietary) name. Motrin and Advil are brand names for ibuprofen.
12. SATA: Which of the following are considered "high-alert" medications? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Insulin
B. Heparin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Chemotherapy agents
E. Potassium chloride (IV)
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: High-alert medications carry a heightened risk of significant patient harm when
used in error. Insulin, heparin, chemotherapy agents, and IV potassium chloride are classic
examples. Acetaminophen is not typically classified as a high-alert medication.
13. A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a drug that is highly protein-bound. If the
patient is also taking another drug that is highly protein-bound, what is the potential risk?
A. Increased risk of toxicity from one or both drugs.
B. Decreased therapeutic effect of both drugs.
C. No significant interaction.
D. Increased excretion of both drugs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When two highly protein-bound drugs are given together, they compete for
Pharmacology for Nursing Care 12th
Edition Practice Question
Unit I: General Principles of Pharmacology
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a drug that has a narrow therapeutic index. Which of the
following actions is most important for the nurse to take?
A. Administer the drug with food to reduce gastric irritation.
B. Monitor the patient closely for therapeutic and toxic effects.
C. Teach the patient to double the dose if a dose is missed.
D. Assess the patient's renal function every 48 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means the difference between a therapeutic dose
and a toxic dose is very small. Therefore, the nurse must monitor the patient closely for both
desired effects and signs of toxicity. Option A is not necessarily true for all narrow-TI drugs.
Option C is dangerous. Option D is important for some drugs but is not the most immediate and
critical action related to the narrow therapeutic index itself.
2. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of a drug's half-life (t½)?
A. The time it takes for the drug to reach its peak plasma concentration.
B. The time it takes for the drug to be completely eliminated from the body.
C. The time it takes for the amount of drug in the body to be reduced by 50%.
D. The time it takes for the drug to produce its maximum therapeutic effect.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Half-life is defined as the time required for the amount of drug in the body to
decrease by half. Option A describes Tmax. Option B describes elimination, which takes
approximately 4-5 half-lives. Option D describes the onset of action.
3. A patient asks the nurse why they need to take a generic drug instead of a brand-name
drug. Which of the following is the most accurate response?
A. "Generic drugs are always safer than brand-name drugs."
B. "Generic drugs are required to be chemically identical to the brand-name drug."
C. "Generic drugs are less expensive but may have different inactive ingredients."
D. "Generic drugs are not as effective as brand-name drugs."
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Generic drugs contain the same active ingredient as the brand-name drug and
are bioequivalent, but they can differ in inactive ingredients (excipients), which can affect things
like taste or color. They are generally less expensive. They are not always safer, nor are they
chemically identical (they are bioequivalent, not necessarily identical in every aspect of
manufacturing). They are considered equally effective.
4. A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list. Which of the following is a priority when
assessing for potential drug interactions?
A. The color of the pills.
B. The patient's favorite food.
C. The patient's use of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs and herbal supplements.
D. The time of day the patient takes their medications.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: OTC drugs and herbal supplements can interact with prescription medications,
leading to altered effects or toxicity. This is a critical part of a medication reconciliation. The
other options are not primary concerns for drug interactions.
5. Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for adverse drug reactions?
A. A 25-year-old male with a sprained ankle.
B. A 45-year-old female with hypertension.
C. A 78-year-old male with renal impairment and polypharmacy.
D. A 10-year-old child with an ear infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Older adults, especially those with organ impairment (like renal impairment) and
those taking multiple medications (polypharmacy), are at a significantly increased risk for
adverse drug reactions due to age-related changes in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.
6. A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription. Which of the following statements
by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will take my medication at the same time every day."
B. "I will stop taking the medication as soon as I feel better."
C. "I will check with my pharmacist before taking any new OTC medications."
D. "I will report any unusual side effects to my doctor."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients should be taught to complete the full course of therapy as prescribed,
,especially for anti-infectives, and to not stop abruptly, particularly for drugs like antidepressants
or corticosteroids. Feeling better does not mean the condition is fully resolved.
7. SATA: Which of the following factors can affect a patient's response to a drug? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Age
B. Body weight
C. Genetic makeup
D. Time of day
E. Patient's hair color
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Age, body weight, genetic makeup (pharmacogenomics), and circadian rhythms
(time of day) can all influence drug response. Hair color is not a recognized factor in drug
response.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via the intravenous (IV) route. Which of the
following is a primary advantage of this route?
A. It is the safest route.
B. It provides the most rapid onset of action.
C. It is the least expensive route.
D. It is the easiest route for self-administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The IV route bypasses the absorption process, leading to the most rapid onset of
action and 100% bioavailability. It is not the safest (due to risk of infection, embolism,
anaphylaxis), nor the least expensive, nor for self-administration.
9. Which of the following describes a drug's "peak effect"?
A. The time it takes for the drug to start working.
B. The maximum therapeutic response a drug can produce.
C. The time it takes for the drug to be eliminated.
D. The point at which the drug's concentration is highest in the blood.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Peak effect is the time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum concentration in
the bloodstream, which often corresponds to the maximum therapeutic effect. Option B
describes efficacy.
10. A patient is prescribed a drug that is a potent inducer of cytochrome P450 enzymes. The
nurse should monitor for which of the following?
, A. Increased effects of other drugs metabolized by this system.
B. Decreased effects of other drugs metabolized by this system.
C. Increased risk of toxicity from the inducing drug.
D. No change in the effects of other drugs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Enzyme inducers increase the metabolism of other drugs metabolized by the
same enzymes, leading to decreased effects of those other drugs.
11. Which of the following is the best example of a drug's generic name?
A. Tylenol
B. Acetaminophen
C. Motrin
D. Advil
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the generic (non-proprietary) name. Tylenol is a brand
(proprietary) name. Motrin and Advil are brand names for ibuprofen.
12. SATA: Which of the following are considered "high-alert" medications? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Insulin
B. Heparin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Chemotherapy agents
E. Potassium chloride (IV)
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: High-alert medications carry a heightened risk of significant patient harm when
used in error. Insulin, heparin, chemotherapy agents, and IV potassium chloride are classic
examples. Acetaminophen is not typically classified as a high-alert medication.
13. A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a drug that is highly protein-bound. If the
patient is also taking another drug that is highly protein-bound, what is the potential risk?
A. Increased risk of toxicity from one or both drugs.
B. Decreased therapeutic effect of both drugs.
C. No significant interaction.
D. Increased excretion of both drugs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When two highly protein-bound drugs are given together, they compete for
