APEA PRE-PREDICTOR NP EXAM LATEST 2026-
2027 ACTUAL EXAM 350+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS/ALREADY GRADED A+
NEWEST
7. A 70-year-old with intermittent back pain for 3 years and neuropathic symptoms
should be treated with: A. Opioids.
B. Amitriptyline.
C. NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen.
Answer: B. Amitriptyline.
Explanation: Tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline) are first-line for neuropathic
pain.
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,8. A patient with MRSA and sulfa allergy should receive: A.
TMP-SMX.
B. Doxycycline.
C. Cephalexin.
D. Amoxicillin.
Answer: B. Doxycycline.
Explanation: Doxycycline is an alternative for MRSA in sulfa-allergic patients.
9. The earliest clinical sign of heart failure is: A.
Dyspnea.
B. Weight gain.
C. Peripheral edema.
D. Fatigue.
Answer: B. Weight gain.
Explanation: Fluid retention leads to weight gain before overt edema or dyspnea.
10. A 75-year-old with isolated systolic hypertension (170/80) should start: A.
Lisinopril.
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,B. Amlodipine.
C. Hydrochlorothiazide.
D. Metoprolol.
Answer: B. Amlodipine.
Explanation: Long-acting calcium channel blockers (e.g., amlodipine) are first-line for
isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly.
11. A 28-year-old with pyelonephritis should receive: A.
Ciprofloxacin for 14 days.
B. Amoxicillin for 7 days.
C. Azithromycin for 5 days.
D. No antibiotics.
Answer: A. Ciprofloxacin for 14 days.
Explanation: Pyelonephritis requires a 14-day course of fluoroquinolones (e.g.,
ciprofloxacin) or cephalosporins. Urine culture guides therapy (*Source: IDSA
Guidelines*).
12. A 37-year-old obese male with Type 2 diabetes (FBG 159 mg/dL), LDL 210 mg/dL,
and BP 146/102 should start:
A. Metformin, atorvastatin, ramipril, ASA.
B. Insulin glargine.
C. Lifestyle changes only.
D. Fenofibrate.
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, Answer: A. Metformin, atorvastatin, ramipril, ASA.
Explanation: ADA recommends metformin for diabetes, statins for LDL >100 mg/dL,
ACE inhibitors for HTN, and ASA for CVD risk reduction.
13. A 45-year-old diabetic with tinea pedis should be treated with: A.
Oral terbinafine.
B. Topical antifungal powder and cream.
C. Oral ketoconazole.
D. No treatment needed.
Answer: B. Topical antifungal powder and cream.
Explanation: Topical antifungals (e.g., clotrimazole) are first-line. Monitor for bacterial
superinfection in diabetics.
14. A 49-year-old with a 2 mm brown macular lesion with regular borders should be:
A. Reassured.
B. Referred for biopsy.
C. Treated with cryotherapy.
D. Monitored annually.
Answer: A. Reassured.
Explanation: Lesions <5 mm with regular borders/color are benign. ABCDE criteria
(Asymmetry, Border irregularity, etc.) suggest malignancy.
Don’t forget to leave a ⭐⭐⭐⭐⭐ on Stuvia. Your review is my motivation. Success in your Exam, I believe in you
2027 ACTUAL EXAM 350+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS/ALREADY GRADED A+
NEWEST
7. A 70-year-old with intermittent back pain for 3 years and neuropathic symptoms
should be treated with: A. Opioids.
B. Amitriptyline.
C. NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen.
Answer: B. Amitriptyline.
Explanation: Tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline) are first-line for neuropathic
pain.
Don’t forget to leave a ⭐⭐⭐⭐⭐ on Stuvia. Your review is my motivation. Success in your Exam, I believe in you
,8. A patient with MRSA and sulfa allergy should receive: A.
TMP-SMX.
B. Doxycycline.
C. Cephalexin.
D. Amoxicillin.
Answer: B. Doxycycline.
Explanation: Doxycycline is an alternative for MRSA in sulfa-allergic patients.
9. The earliest clinical sign of heart failure is: A.
Dyspnea.
B. Weight gain.
C. Peripheral edema.
D. Fatigue.
Answer: B. Weight gain.
Explanation: Fluid retention leads to weight gain before overt edema or dyspnea.
10. A 75-year-old with isolated systolic hypertension (170/80) should start: A.
Lisinopril.
Don’t forget to leave a ⭐⭐⭐⭐⭐ on Stuvia. Your review is my motivation. Success in your Exam, I believe in you
,B. Amlodipine.
C. Hydrochlorothiazide.
D. Metoprolol.
Answer: B. Amlodipine.
Explanation: Long-acting calcium channel blockers (e.g., amlodipine) are first-line for
isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly.
11. A 28-year-old with pyelonephritis should receive: A.
Ciprofloxacin for 14 days.
B. Amoxicillin for 7 days.
C. Azithromycin for 5 days.
D. No antibiotics.
Answer: A. Ciprofloxacin for 14 days.
Explanation: Pyelonephritis requires a 14-day course of fluoroquinolones (e.g.,
ciprofloxacin) or cephalosporins. Urine culture guides therapy (*Source: IDSA
Guidelines*).
12. A 37-year-old obese male with Type 2 diabetes (FBG 159 mg/dL), LDL 210 mg/dL,
and BP 146/102 should start:
A. Metformin, atorvastatin, ramipril, ASA.
B. Insulin glargine.
C. Lifestyle changes only.
D. Fenofibrate.
Don’t forget to leave a ⭐⭐⭐⭐⭐ on Stuvia. Your review is my motivation. Success in your Exam, I believe in you
, Answer: A. Metformin, atorvastatin, ramipril, ASA.
Explanation: ADA recommends metformin for diabetes, statins for LDL >100 mg/dL,
ACE inhibitors for HTN, and ASA for CVD risk reduction.
13. A 45-year-old diabetic with tinea pedis should be treated with: A.
Oral terbinafine.
B. Topical antifungal powder and cream.
C. Oral ketoconazole.
D. No treatment needed.
Answer: B. Topical antifungal powder and cream.
Explanation: Topical antifungals (e.g., clotrimazole) are first-line. Monitor for bacterial
superinfection in diabetics.
14. A 49-year-old with a 2 mm brown macular lesion with regular borders should be:
A. Reassured.
B. Referred for biopsy.
C. Treated with cryotherapy.
D. Monitored annually.
Answer: A. Reassured.
Explanation: Lesions <5 mm with regular borders/color are benign. ABCDE criteria
(Asymmetry, Border irregularity, etc.) suggest malignancy.
Don’t forget to leave a ⭐⭐⭐⭐⭐ on Stuvia. Your review is my motivation. Success in your Exam, I believe in you
