NURS 6521 ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS: WALDEN
UNIVERSITY
1. A patient with a creatinine clearance of 25 mL/min is prescribed a drug that is primarily
renally excreted. Which pharmacokinetic principle is most critical for the provider to
consider?
A. The drug will have a shorter half-life due to decreased volume of distribution.
B. The drug’s steady-state concentration will be reached faster.
C. Renal impairment enhances the first-pass effect in the liver.
D. Reduced clearance increases the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Renal impairment reduces the rate at which drugs are
eliminated from the body, leading to a higher plasma concentration and potential toxicity
unless the dose is adjusted.
,2. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for Rifampin when considering
drug-drug interactions?
A. It is a potent inducer of the CYP3A4 enzyme system.
B. It is a potent inhibitor of the CYP3A4 enzyme system.
C. It competes for P-glycoprotein efflux transporters in the blood-brain barrier.
D. It increases the bioavailability of co-administered prodrugs.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Rifampin is a classic enzyme inducer, increasing the metabolism
of other drugs processed by the CYP450 system, often requiring higher doses of those co-
administered drugs.
3. A patient is prescribed Liraglutide for Type 2 Diabetes management. Which potential
serious adverse effect should the provider discuss?
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Peripheral edema
D. Macular degeneration
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: GLP-1 receptor agonists like liraglutide are associated with an
increased risk of acute pancreatitis, requiring monitoring for severe abdominal pain.
, 4. Which electrolyte abnormality most significantly increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Digoxin competes with potassium for binding at the Na+/K+-
ATPase pump. Low potassium levels allow more digoxin to bind, increasing the risk of
toxicity.
5. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops a dry, non-productive cough. This is primarily
attributed to the accumulation of which substance?
A. Bradykinin
B. Renin
C. Angiotensin I
D. Aldosterone
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin in the
lungs, leading to inflammation and a characteristic dry cough.
PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS: WALDEN
UNIVERSITY
1. A patient with a creatinine clearance of 25 mL/min is prescribed a drug that is primarily
renally excreted. Which pharmacokinetic principle is most critical for the provider to
consider?
A. The drug will have a shorter half-life due to decreased volume of distribution.
B. The drug’s steady-state concentration will be reached faster.
C. Renal impairment enhances the first-pass effect in the liver.
D. Reduced clearance increases the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Renal impairment reduces the rate at which drugs are
eliminated from the body, leading to a higher plasma concentration and potential toxicity
unless the dose is adjusted.
,2. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for Rifampin when considering
drug-drug interactions?
A. It is a potent inducer of the CYP3A4 enzyme system.
B. It is a potent inhibitor of the CYP3A4 enzyme system.
C. It competes for P-glycoprotein efflux transporters in the blood-brain barrier.
D. It increases the bioavailability of co-administered prodrugs.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Rifampin is a classic enzyme inducer, increasing the metabolism
of other drugs processed by the CYP450 system, often requiring higher doses of those co-
administered drugs.
3. A patient is prescribed Liraglutide for Type 2 Diabetes management. Which potential
serious adverse effect should the provider discuss?
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Peripheral edema
D. Macular degeneration
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: GLP-1 receptor agonists like liraglutide are associated with an
increased risk of acute pancreatitis, requiring monitoring for severe abdominal pain.
, 4. Which electrolyte abnormality most significantly increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Digoxin competes with potassium for binding at the Na+/K+-
ATPase pump. Low potassium levels allow more digoxin to bind, increasing the risk of
toxicity.
5. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops a dry, non-productive cough. This is primarily
attributed to the accumulation of which substance?
A. Bradykinin
B. Renin
C. Angiotensin I
D. Aldosterone
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin in the
lungs, leading to inflammation and a characteristic dry cough.
