NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
Exam 1 | Questions and Correct Answers plus
Rationale | 2026-2027 Update
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about breast self-awareness. When is the best
time for a woman to perform a breast self-examination (BSE)?
A) During the first day of the menstrual period
B) On the same day every month regardless of menses
C) Immediately before the menstrual period begins
D) One week after the menstrual period starts
Correct Answer: D) One week after the menstrual period starts
Rationale: The best time for BSE is 5–7 days after the start of menstruation, when
hormonal breast tenderness and swelling are at their lowest. This improves the
ability to detect changes. Postmenopausal women should choose the same day
each month.
2. A patient is diagnosed with Invasive Ductal Carcinoma. Which clinical finding
is most characteristic of this type of breast cancer?
A) A poorly defined mass with skin dimpling
B) Fluid-filled cysts that fluctuate with menses
C) Cancer cells contained strictly within the mammary lobules
D) A scaly, red, and irritated nipple area
Correct Answer: A) A poorly defined mass with skin dimpling
Rationale: Invasive ductal carcinoma typically presents as a firm, irregular, poorly
defined mass. Skin dimpling or nipple retraction can occur as the tumor invades
surrounding tissue. Options B, C, and D describe benign cysts, lobular carcinoma in
situ, and Paget’s disease, respectively.
,3. Which assessment finding in a patient with inflammatory breast cancer (IBC)
requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider?
A) Monthly breast tenderness before menstruation
B) A small, moveable lump in the lower quadrant
C) Peau d’orange and a tender, firm, enlarged breast
D) Scaly skin around the areola
Correct Answer: C) Peau d’orange and a tender, firm, enlarged breast
Rationale: Inflammatory breast cancer is an aggressive cancer that presents with
peau d’orange (orange-peel skin), redness, warmth, and a firm, enlarged breast.
This requires urgent referral and treatment. The other findings are not
characteristic of IBC.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient post-mastectomy. Which intervention is a
priority to prevent lymphedema?
A) Placing the affected arm in a dependent position
B) Ensuring no blood draws or injections are done on the affected arm
C) Encouraging the patient to sleep on the operative side
D) Checking blood pressure only on the affected arm
Correct Answer: B) Ensuring no blood draws or injections are done on the
affected arm
Rationale: After mastectomy with lymph node removal, the affected arm is at high
risk for lymphedema. Blood draws, injections, and blood pressure measurements
should be avoided on that arm to prevent infection and increased lymphatic load.
5. A 52-year-old female patient reports painless postmenopausal vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect first?
A) Endometrial (Uterine) Cancer
B) Toxic Shock Syndrome
C) Vulvovaginitis
D) Uterine Leiomyoma
Correct Answer: A) Endometrial (Uterine) Cancer
, Rationale: Painless postmenopausal bleeding is a classic warning sign of
endometrial cancer until proven otherwise. Any postmenopausal bleeding
requires prompt evaluation, usually with endometrial biopsy.
6. What is considered the "gold standard" diagnostic test for confirming
endometrial cancer?
A) Papanicolaou (Pap) smear
B) CA-125 serum marker levels
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: D) Endometrial biopsy
Rationale: Endometrial biopsy directly samples the endometrium and is the
definitive test for diagnosing endometrial cancer. Pap smears detect cervical
cancer, not endometrial cancer. Ultrasound and CA-125 may suggest malignancy
but are not confirmatory.
7. A patient with uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) is scheduled for a uterine artery
embolism. The nurse should explain that this procedure works by:
A) Injecting pellets to starve the tumor of its blood supply
B) Destroying the entire endometrium with heat
C) Using a loop wire to cut away affected cervical tissue
D) Removing the fibroids via a laser through the vagina
Correct Answer: A) Injecting pellets to starve the tumor of its blood supply
Rationale: Uterine artery embolization involves injecting small particles into the
uterine arteries to block blood flow to fibroids, causing them to shrink. It does not
destroy the endometrium or remove tissue directly.
8. Following a total hysterectomy, a nurse monitors the patient’s perineal pads.
Which finding would indicate a potential complication?
A) Small amount of blood-tinged drainage
Exam 1 | Questions and Correct Answers plus
Rationale | 2026-2027 Update
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about breast self-awareness. When is the best
time for a woman to perform a breast self-examination (BSE)?
A) During the first day of the menstrual period
B) On the same day every month regardless of menses
C) Immediately before the menstrual period begins
D) One week after the menstrual period starts
Correct Answer: D) One week after the menstrual period starts
Rationale: The best time for BSE is 5–7 days after the start of menstruation, when
hormonal breast tenderness and swelling are at their lowest. This improves the
ability to detect changes. Postmenopausal women should choose the same day
each month.
2. A patient is diagnosed with Invasive Ductal Carcinoma. Which clinical finding
is most characteristic of this type of breast cancer?
A) A poorly defined mass with skin dimpling
B) Fluid-filled cysts that fluctuate with menses
C) Cancer cells contained strictly within the mammary lobules
D) A scaly, red, and irritated nipple area
Correct Answer: A) A poorly defined mass with skin dimpling
Rationale: Invasive ductal carcinoma typically presents as a firm, irregular, poorly
defined mass. Skin dimpling or nipple retraction can occur as the tumor invades
surrounding tissue. Options B, C, and D describe benign cysts, lobular carcinoma in
situ, and Paget’s disease, respectively.
,3. Which assessment finding in a patient with inflammatory breast cancer (IBC)
requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider?
A) Monthly breast tenderness before menstruation
B) A small, moveable lump in the lower quadrant
C) Peau d’orange and a tender, firm, enlarged breast
D) Scaly skin around the areola
Correct Answer: C) Peau d’orange and a tender, firm, enlarged breast
Rationale: Inflammatory breast cancer is an aggressive cancer that presents with
peau d’orange (orange-peel skin), redness, warmth, and a firm, enlarged breast.
This requires urgent referral and treatment. The other findings are not
characteristic of IBC.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient post-mastectomy. Which intervention is a
priority to prevent lymphedema?
A) Placing the affected arm in a dependent position
B) Ensuring no blood draws or injections are done on the affected arm
C) Encouraging the patient to sleep on the operative side
D) Checking blood pressure only on the affected arm
Correct Answer: B) Ensuring no blood draws or injections are done on the
affected arm
Rationale: After mastectomy with lymph node removal, the affected arm is at high
risk for lymphedema. Blood draws, injections, and blood pressure measurements
should be avoided on that arm to prevent infection and increased lymphatic load.
5. A 52-year-old female patient reports painless postmenopausal vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect first?
A) Endometrial (Uterine) Cancer
B) Toxic Shock Syndrome
C) Vulvovaginitis
D) Uterine Leiomyoma
Correct Answer: A) Endometrial (Uterine) Cancer
, Rationale: Painless postmenopausal bleeding is a classic warning sign of
endometrial cancer until proven otherwise. Any postmenopausal bleeding
requires prompt evaluation, usually with endometrial biopsy.
6. What is considered the "gold standard" diagnostic test for confirming
endometrial cancer?
A) Papanicolaou (Pap) smear
B) CA-125 serum marker levels
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: D) Endometrial biopsy
Rationale: Endometrial biopsy directly samples the endometrium and is the
definitive test for diagnosing endometrial cancer. Pap smears detect cervical
cancer, not endometrial cancer. Ultrasound and CA-125 may suggest malignancy
but are not confirmatory.
7. A patient with uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) is scheduled for a uterine artery
embolism. The nurse should explain that this procedure works by:
A) Injecting pellets to starve the tumor of its blood supply
B) Destroying the entire endometrium with heat
C) Using a loop wire to cut away affected cervical tissue
D) Removing the fibroids via a laser through the vagina
Correct Answer: A) Injecting pellets to starve the tumor of its blood supply
Rationale: Uterine artery embolization involves injecting small particles into the
uterine arteries to block blood flow to fibroids, causing them to shrink. It does not
destroy the endometrium or remove tissue directly.
8. Following a total hysterectomy, a nurse monitors the patient’s perineal pads.
Which finding would indicate a potential complication?
A) Small amount of blood-tinged drainage