ABFM ITE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS UPDATED & VERIFIED
Question 1
A 15-year-old patient who was recently hospitalized for anorexia nervosa sees you for
a follow-up
visit in your clinic to discuss the next steps in treatment. Which one of the following
therapies is the
recommended next step in treatment for this patient?
A) Self-guided treatment
B) Cognitive behavioral therapy
C) Focal psychodynamic psychotherapy
D) Interpersonal psychotherapy
E) Family-based therapy
Correct Answer
ANSWER: E
Family-based therapy is recommended as first-line therapy for anorexia nervosa in
adolescents and some young adults. Studies have shown that family-based therapy
results in higher remission rates and weight gain than individual therapy such as self
guided
treatment, cognitive behavioral therapy, focal psychodynamic psychotherapy,
and interpersonal psychotherapy
Page 1 of 797
,Question 2
A 63-year-old female with a medical history of hypertension, depression,
fibromyalgia, and giant cell
arteritis presents with a 3-week history of progressive cough and shortness of breath.
She has been
taking prednisone for the last 3 months and is tapering the dosage. Her current
dosage is 25 mg daily.
The patient's vital signs include a temperature of 38.1 °C (100.6 °F), an oxygen
saturation of 88% on
room air, and a respiratory rate of 28/min. On examination, her lungs are clear, and a
chest
radiograph shows bilateral perihilar interstitial pulmonary infiltrates. You recommend
hospital
admission and intravenous antibiotics. Cultures are pending.
Which one of the following antibiotic combinations would be the most appropriate
initial treatment?
A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) and ceftriaxone
B) Levofloxacin and metronidazole
C) Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) and vancomycin
D) Azithromycin, cefepime, and vancomycin
E)
Correct Answer
ANSWER: E
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP), previously known as Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia, is a fungus that causes severe pneumonia in immunosuppressed
individuals. It is a classic AIDS-defining illness but can also affect those on
prolonged
courses of corticosteroids or other forms of immunosuppression. This patient's
presentation of notable dyspnea, hypoxia, no focal lung sounds, and bilateral
interstitial
infiltrates on radiography is consistent with PJP.
Page 2 of 797
,Question 3
A 69-year-old female comes to your office for a routine health maintenance visit. She
drinks 1 glass
of wine every night with dinner, walks 30 minutes per day, and does not smoke. Her
medical history
is significant for knee osteoarthritis. She has never had surgery and does not take any
medications
except as-needed ibuprofen.
On examination she has a BMI of 28 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 112/78 mm Hg, and
a heart rate of
82 beats/min. Other than bilateral knee crepitus, the physical examination findings are
unremarkable
Her calculated 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease is 13.2%.
In addition to appropriately treating her diabetes mellitus, which one of the following
is
recommended by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force regarding statin use in this
patient?
A) No statin at this time
B) A low-intensity statin
C) A moderate-intensity statin
D) A high-intensity statin
Correct Answer
ANSWER: C
According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, statin therapy with a
moderateintensity
dosage is recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease
(CVD) in adults 40-75 years of age with a CVD risk of ≥10% with 1 or more CVD risk
factors such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, dyslipidemia, or smoking tobacco (B
recommendation). Not initiating statin therapy increases the cardiovascular risk for
this
patient with identified CVD risk factors
Page 3 of 797
, Question 4
A 55-year-old female who is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and alcohol
intoxication expresses a
desire for discharge against medical advice on day 2 of her admission. Which one of
the following
additional factors would represent a CONTRAINDICATION to immediate discharge in
this case?
A) A current manifestation of mild alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B) A history of major depression with a past suicide attempt
C) An inability to demonstrate appreciation of her medical situation
D) A lack of health insurance
E) An unstable housing situation
Correct Answer
ANSWER: C
Page 4 of 797
ANSWERS UPDATED & VERIFIED
Question 1
A 15-year-old patient who was recently hospitalized for anorexia nervosa sees you for
a follow-up
visit in your clinic to discuss the next steps in treatment. Which one of the following
therapies is the
recommended next step in treatment for this patient?
A) Self-guided treatment
B) Cognitive behavioral therapy
C) Focal psychodynamic psychotherapy
D) Interpersonal psychotherapy
E) Family-based therapy
Correct Answer
ANSWER: E
Family-based therapy is recommended as first-line therapy for anorexia nervosa in
adolescents and some young adults. Studies have shown that family-based therapy
results in higher remission rates and weight gain than individual therapy such as self
guided
treatment, cognitive behavioral therapy, focal psychodynamic psychotherapy,
and interpersonal psychotherapy
Page 1 of 797
,Question 2
A 63-year-old female with a medical history of hypertension, depression,
fibromyalgia, and giant cell
arteritis presents with a 3-week history of progressive cough and shortness of breath.
She has been
taking prednisone for the last 3 months and is tapering the dosage. Her current
dosage is 25 mg daily.
The patient's vital signs include a temperature of 38.1 °C (100.6 °F), an oxygen
saturation of 88% on
room air, and a respiratory rate of 28/min. On examination, her lungs are clear, and a
chest
radiograph shows bilateral perihilar interstitial pulmonary infiltrates. You recommend
hospital
admission and intravenous antibiotics. Cultures are pending.
Which one of the following antibiotic combinations would be the most appropriate
initial treatment?
A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) and ceftriaxone
B) Levofloxacin and metronidazole
C) Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) and vancomycin
D) Azithromycin, cefepime, and vancomycin
E)
Correct Answer
ANSWER: E
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP), previously known as Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia, is a fungus that causes severe pneumonia in immunosuppressed
individuals. It is a classic AIDS-defining illness but can also affect those on
prolonged
courses of corticosteroids or other forms of immunosuppression. This patient's
presentation of notable dyspnea, hypoxia, no focal lung sounds, and bilateral
interstitial
infiltrates on radiography is consistent with PJP.
Page 2 of 797
,Question 3
A 69-year-old female comes to your office for a routine health maintenance visit. She
drinks 1 glass
of wine every night with dinner, walks 30 minutes per day, and does not smoke. Her
medical history
is significant for knee osteoarthritis. She has never had surgery and does not take any
medications
except as-needed ibuprofen.
On examination she has a BMI of 28 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 112/78 mm Hg, and
a heart rate of
82 beats/min. Other than bilateral knee crepitus, the physical examination findings are
unremarkable
Her calculated 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease is 13.2%.
In addition to appropriately treating her diabetes mellitus, which one of the following
is
recommended by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force regarding statin use in this
patient?
A) No statin at this time
B) A low-intensity statin
C) A moderate-intensity statin
D) A high-intensity statin
Correct Answer
ANSWER: C
According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, statin therapy with a
moderateintensity
dosage is recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease
(CVD) in adults 40-75 years of age with a CVD risk of ≥10% with 1 or more CVD risk
factors such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, dyslipidemia, or smoking tobacco (B
recommendation). Not initiating statin therapy increases the cardiovascular risk for
this
patient with identified CVD risk factors
Page 3 of 797
, Question 4
A 55-year-old female who is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and alcohol
intoxication expresses a
desire for discharge against medical advice on day 2 of her admission. Which one of
the following
additional factors would represent a CONTRAINDICATION to immediate discharge in
this case?
A) A current manifestation of mild alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B) A history of major depression with a past suicide attempt
C) An inability to demonstrate appreciation of her medical situation
D) A lack of health insurance
E) An unstable housing situation
Correct Answer
ANSWER: C
Page 4 of 797
