Pharmacology for Nursing Practice
EXAM 2 PRACTICE
100 Multiple-Choice Questions
Correct Answers • Expert Rationales • Clinical Application
2026/2027 Study Edition
WHAT’S INSIDE
100 Multiple-Choice Questions & Correct Answers
Expert Rationales
Clinical Application
COURSE-ALIGNED STUDY RESOURCE
For independent exam preparation and concept review
,Exam 2 Contents
Domain Questions
Cardiovascular Pharmacology 20
Respiratory and Allergy Pharmacology 12
Endocrine Pharmacology 16
Neurologic, Psychiatric, and Pain Pharmacology 20
Anti-Infective Pharmacology 16
Gastrointestinal Pharmacology 8
Integrated Nursing Application 8
,Cardiovascular Pharmacology
Question 1. A patient starting lisinopril asks which adverse effect should be reported immediately.
A. Dry cough
B. Swelling of the lips or tongue
C. Mild fatigue after activity
D. Occasional headache
Correct Answer: B. Swelling of the lips or tongue
Rationale: Lip or tongue swelling may indicate ACE-inhibitor-associated angioedema, which can threaten
the airway and requires urgent evaluation. A dry cough can occur with ACE inhibitors but is not usually an
airway emergency.
Question 2. Which laboratory values are most important to trend after initiation of an ACE inhibitor?
A. Potassium and renal function
B. Amylase and lipase
C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit only
D. Calcium and magnesium only
Correct Answer: A. Potassium and renal function
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase potassium and may worsen renal function in susceptible patients.
Potassium and creatinine/eGFR are therefore important monitoring parameters.
Question 3. A patient taking losartan should be taught to use caution with which over-the-counter product
unless approved by the prescriber?
A. Potassium-containing salt substitute
B. Saline nasal spray
C. Artificial tears
D. Topical moisturizer
Correct Answer: A. Potassium-containing salt substitute
Rationale: ARBs such as losartan can increase potassium. Potassium supplements or salt substitutes may
further increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
Question 4. Before giving metoprolol, which assessment is the priority?
A. Apical pulse and blood pressure
, B. Pupil response
C. Bowel sounds
D. Skin temperature only
Correct Answer: A. Apical pulse and blood pressure
Rationale: Beta blockers can decrease heart rate and blood pressure. The nurse should assess pulse and
blood pressure and follow prescribed hold parameters.
Question 5. Which finding in a patient receiving metoprolol requires follow-up before the scheduled dose?
A. Heart rate 48/min
B. Respiratory rate 16/min
C. Temperature 98.4 F (36.9 C)
D. Oxygen saturation 97%
Correct Answer: A. Heart rate 48/min
Rationale: Marked bradycardia can be worsened by beta blockade. The nurse should withhold or clarify the
dose according to the prescription and institutional parameters.
Question 6. A patient with diabetes is prescribed a beta blocker. Which teaching is most important?
A. The drug may mask some adrenergic warning signs of hypoglycemia
B. The drug prevents all episodes of hypoglycemia
C. Blood glucose monitoring is no longer needed
D. The drug always causes severe hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: A. The drug may mask some adrenergic warning signs of hypoglycemia
Rationale: Beta blockers may blunt tachycardia and tremor associated with hypoglycemia. Patients with
diabetes should continue glucose monitoring and learn other symptoms such as sweating or
neuroglycopenic changes.
Question 7. A patient taking amlodipine reports ankle swelling. How should the nurse interpret this
finding?
A. Peripheral edema can occur with calcium channel blockers
B. It proves the patient has an allergy
C. It indicates severe hypoglycemia
D. It is evidence of drug dependence
Correct Answer: A. Peripheral edema can occur with calcium channel blockers