AOCNP EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2026
1. When approaching performance status - recognition, which step or principle should be applied at the
appropriate point in the sequence? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Why is
performance status clinically important in oncology?
A. It directly identifies tumor histology
B. It guarantees response to immunotherapy
C. It helps estimate functional reserve and informs treatment tolerance and prognosis
D. It replaces staging
Correct Answer: C. It helps estimate functional reserve and informs treatment tolerance and prognosis
Rationale: Performance status captures functional ability and is widely used to guide treatment selection, trial
eligibility, and prognostic assessment.
2. At follow-up for a case involving SIADH - recognition, which finding or plan is most appropriate?
Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which laboratory pattern supports SIADH?
A. Isolated metabolic alkalosis
B. Hypotonic hyponatremia with inappropriately concentrated urine in an euvolemic patient
C. Hypernatremia with maximally dilute urine
D. Hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH
Correct Answer: B. Hypotonic hyponatremia with inappropriately concentrated urine in an euvolemic patient
Rationale: SIADH causes impaired free-water excretion, producing hypotonic hyponatremia with urine that
remains inappropriately concentrated despite low serum osmolality.
3. A clinician is reviewing a case involving immune checkpoint pneumonitis. Which finding or action best
fits this situation? A patient on checkpoint inhibitor therapy develops new dry cough, dyspnea, and diffuse
pulmonary opacities. What toxicity must be considered?
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Peripheral arterial disease
D. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
Correct Answer: D. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
Rationale: Checkpoint inhibitor pneumonitis can present with cough, dyspnea, hypoxemia, and imaging
abnormalities and may require holding therapy and corticosteroid treatment depending on severity.
4. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving chemotherapy-induced nausea - safety, the key issue
is identified. What is the most appropriate next step? Which safety implication is most important? Which
principle is central to preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
A. Use antibiotics as primary prophylaxis
B. Wait until severe vomiting occurs before giving antiemetics
C. Avoid combination antiemetic regimens in highly emetogenic therapy
D. Match prophylaxis to the emetogenic risk of the regimen and patient factors
Correct Answer: D. Match prophylaxis to the emetogenic risk of the regimen and patient factors
Rationale: Antiemetic prophylaxis is most effective when given before therapy and tailored to regimen
emetogenicity, often using combination agents for moderate or high risk.
5. Which statement about staging is most accurate? What is the main purpose of cancer staging?
A. To identify the exact molecular mutation in every tumor
B. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
C. To measure pain severity
D. To replace pathology
Correct Answer: B. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
Rationale: Staging summarizes anatomic or disease extent and is central to prognosis, treatment selection, and
communication.
6. Which safety-focused response is most appropriate in a situation involving spinal cord compression
-recognition? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which symptom in a patient with
cancer requires urgent evaluation for spinal cord compression?
A. Stable alopecia after chemotherapy
B. Chronic fatigue without neurologic symptoms
,C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
D. Mild taste change
Correct Answer: C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
Rationale: Malignant spinal cord compression can cause irreversible neurologic injury; new focal neurologic
deficits or sphincter changes with back pain require emergency imaging and treatment.
7. Which consideration is most important when evaluating risk related to cisplatin toxicity - safety? Which
safety implication is most important? Which toxicity is strongly associated with cisplatin?
A. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
B. Hemorrhagic cystitis as the dominant toxicity
C. Severe cardiomyopathy as its defining toxicity
D. Pulmonary fibrosis only
Correct Answer: A. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Rationale: Cisplatin is notably nephrotoxic and ototoxic and can also cause electrolyte wasting and significant
nausea and vomiting.
8. Which assessment finding most strongly supports the key concept in tumor suppressor genes? Loss of
function in a tumor suppressor gene generally contributes to cancer by doing what?
A. Preventing cell-cycle progression in all tissues
B. Increasing normal DNA repair fidelity
C. Removing restraints on cell growth or genomic integrity
D. Guaranteeing apoptosis of abnormal cells
Correct Answer: C. Removing restraints on cell growth or genomic integrity
Rationale: Tumor suppressor genes normally restrain proliferation, repair DNA, or promote apoptosis; loss of
function can remove these safeguards.
9. A clinician is reviewing a case involving neutropenic precautions - recognition. Which finding or action
best fits this situation? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which recommendation is
most important for a neutropenic patient at home?
A. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
B. Avoid all fresh foods regardless of preparation
C. Take prophylactic antibiotics without prescription
D. Ignore oral ulcers unless pain is severe
Correct Answer: A. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
Rationale: Fever can be the first sign of serious infection in neutropenia; prompt reporting, hand hygiene, and
safe food practices are central precautions.
10. Which safety-focused response is most appropriate in a situation involving tumor lysis syndrome
-safety? Which safety implication is most important? Which laboratory pattern is typical of tumor lysis
syndrome?
A. Low creatinine with alkalosis only
B. Isolated hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypercalcemia, and low uric acid
D. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia
Correct Answer: D. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia
Rationale: Rapid tumor breakdown releases potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids, leading to hyperkalemia,
hyperphosphatemia, secondary hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia.
11. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving immune checkpoint pneumonitis - safety, the key
issue is identified. What is the most appropriate next step? Which safety implication is most important? A
patient on checkpoint inhibitor therapy develops new dry cough, dyspnea, and diffuse pulmonary opacities.
What toxicity must be considered?
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
C. Peripheral arterial disease
D. Acute appendicitis
Correct Answer: B. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
Rationale: Checkpoint inhibitor pneumonitis can present with cough, dyspnea, hypoxemia, and imaging
abnormalities and may require holding therapy and corticosteroid treatment depending on severity.
,12. Several issues are being considered in a case involving opioid constipation - recognition. Which point
deserves priority? Which statement best captures the defining feature? What prophylactic measure should
usually accompany chronic opioid therapy when not contraindicated?
A. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis
B. A bowel regimen
C. Daily corticosteroids for everyone
D. Fluid restriction
Correct Answer: B. A bowel regimen
Rationale: Opioids commonly reduce gastrointestinal motility; stimulant or osmotic bowel regimens are often
started proactively unless contraindicated.
13. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving staging, the key issue is identified. What is the most
appropriate next step? What is the main purpose of cancer staging?
A. To identify the exact molecular mutation in every tumor
B. To replace pathology
C. To measure pain severity
D. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
Correct Answer: D. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
Rationale: Staging summarizes anatomic or disease extent and is central to prognosis, treatment selection, and
communication.
14. A student makes an error while reasoning through oral anticancer adherence - recognition. Which
correction is most accurate? Which statement best captures the defining feature? What is an essential
component of safe oral anticancer therapy?
A. Assess adherence, interactions, storage, handling, and toxicity at follow-up
B. Encourage dose doubling after missed doses
C. Assume adherence because medication is taken at home
D. Stop laboratory monitoring
Correct Answer: A. Assess adherence, interactions, storage, handling, and toxicity at follow-up
Rationale: Oral therapy shifts responsibility to the home setting; clinicians must assess adherence and safe use,
interactions, missed-dose instructions, monitoring, and adverse effects.
15. Which outcome would best indicate that the principle or intervention related to spinal cord
compression has been correctly understood or applied? Which symptom in a patient with cancer requires
urgent evaluation for spinal cord compression?
A. Mild taste change
B. Chronic fatigue without neurologic symptoms
C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
D. Stable alopecia after chemotherapy
Correct Answer: C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
Rationale: Malignant spinal cord compression can cause irreversible neurologic injury; new focal neurologic
deficits or sphincter changes with back pain require emergency imaging and treatment.
16. Which teaching point about anthracycline cardiotoxicity - recognition is most appropriate? Which
statement best captures the defining feature? Which organ toxicity is classically associated with cumulative
anthracycline exposure?
A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Hypothyroidism only
C. Ototoxicity as the defining toxicity
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis only
Correct Answer: A. Cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Anthracyclines such as doxorubicin can produce dose-related myocardial injury and cardiomyopathy,
so baseline and risk-based cardiac assessment are important.
17. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving malignant hypercalcemia - recognition, the key
issue is identified. What is the most appropriate next step? Which statement best captures the defining
feature? Which finding is consistent with clinically significant hypercalcemia of malignancy?
A. Tetany from severe hypocalcemia only
B. Profound bradycardia from hypothyroidism only
, C. Confusion, constipation, dehydration, and weakness
D. Isolated rash
Correct Answer: C. Confusion, constipation, dehydration, and weakness
Rationale: Hypercalcemia can cause neurocognitive change, gastrointestinal symptoms, polyuria, dehydration,
weakness, and cardiac effects and may require urgent therapy.
18. Which outcome would best indicate that the principle or intervention related to neutropenic
precautions - recognition has been correctly understood or applied? Which statement best captures the
defining feature? Which recommendation is most important for a neutropenic patient at home?
A. Ignore oral ulcers unless pain is severe
B. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
C. Avoid all fresh foods regardless of preparation
D. Take prophylactic antibiotics without prescription
Correct Answer: B. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
Rationale: Fever can be the first sign of serious infection in neutropenia; prompt reporting, hand hygiene, and
safe food practices are central precautions.
19. A decision involving superior vena cava syndrome must be made with limited time and competing
priorities. Which choice is most appropriate? Which presentation suggests superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Isolated lower-extremity claudication
B. Painless hematuria only
C. Bilateral otitis media
D. Facial and upper-extremity swelling with venous distention and dyspnea
Correct Answer: D. Facial and upper-extremity swelling with venous distention and dyspnea
Rationale: SVC obstruction causes impaired venous return from the head, neck, and upper extremities, producing
edema, venous distention, dyspnea, and sometimes neurologic symptoms.
20. A differential is being narrowed for a presentation related to radiation dermatitis - recognition. Which
option best fits the defining pattern? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which skin-care
advice is generally appropriate during external-beam radiation?
A. Use abrasive exfoliants daily
B. Apply heating pads directly to the field
C. Scrub treatment markings vigorously
D. Use gentle skin care and follow site-specific radiation-team guidance
Correct Answer: D. Use gentle skin care and follow site-specific radiation-team guidance
Rationale: Irradiated skin is vulnerable to inflammation; gentle cleansing, avoidance of friction or extreme
temperatures, and adherence to radiation-team instructions are standard supportive principles.
21. Which application of the principle associated with distress screening is correct? Why is routine
psychosocial distress screening used in oncology care?
A. To replace all diagnostic assessment
B. To identify unmet emotional, social, practical, or spiritual needs that may benefit from intervention
C. To determine chemotherapy dose
D. To predict exact survival
Correct Answer: B. To identify unmet emotional, social, practical, or spiritual needs that may benefit from
intervention
Rationale: Distress screening helps detect clinically important psychosocial needs and supports timely referral or
intervention as part of comprehensive cancer care.
22. At follow-up for a case involving oncogenes, which finding or plan is most appropriate? What is the
usual effect of oncogene activation?
A. Selective destruction of all malignant cells
B. Complete shutdown of cellular proliferation
C. Promotion of growth or survival signaling
D. Mandatory senescence in every cell
Correct Answer: C. Promotion of growth or survival signaling
Rationale: Activated oncogenes can drive inappropriate proliferative or survival signaling, contributing to
malignant transformation.
1. When approaching performance status - recognition, which step or principle should be applied at the
appropriate point in the sequence? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Why is
performance status clinically important in oncology?
A. It directly identifies tumor histology
B. It guarantees response to immunotherapy
C. It helps estimate functional reserve and informs treatment tolerance and prognosis
D. It replaces staging
Correct Answer: C. It helps estimate functional reserve and informs treatment tolerance and prognosis
Rationale: Performance status captures functional ability and is widely used to guide treatment selection, trial
eligibility, and prognostic assessment.
2. At follow-up for a case involving SIADH - recognition, which finding or plan is most appropriate?
Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which laboratory pattern supports SIADH?
A. Isolated metabolic alkalosis
B. Hypotonic hyponatremia with inappropriately concentrated urine in an euvolemic patient
C. Hypernatremia with maximally dilute urine
D. Hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH
Correct Answer: B. Hypotonic hyponatremia with inappropriately concentrated urine in an euvolemic patient
Rationale: SIADH causes impaired free-water excretion, producing hypotonic hyponatremia with urine that
remains inappropriately concentrated despite low serum osmolality.
3. A clinician is reviewing a case involving immune checkpoint pneumonitis. Which finding or action best
fits this situation? A patient on checkpoint inhibitor therapy develops new dry cough, dyspnea, and diffuse
pulmonary opacities. What toxicity must be considered?
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Peripheral arterial disease
D. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
Correct Answer: D. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
Rationale: Checkpoint inhibitor pneumonitis can present with cough, dyspnea, hypoxemia, and imaging
abnormalities and may require holding therapy and corticosteroid treatment depending on severity.
4. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving chemotherapy-induced nausea - safety, the key issue
is identified. What is the most appropriate next step? Which safety implication is most important? Which
principle is central to preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
A. Use antibiotics as primary prophylaxis
B. Wait until severe vomiting occurs before giving antiemetics
C. Avoid combination antiemetic regimens in highly emetogenic therapy
D. Match prophylaxis to the emetogenic risk of the regimen and patient factors
Correct Answer: D. Match prophylaxis to the emetogenic risk of the regimen and patient factors
Rationale: Antiemetic prophylaxis is most effective when given before therapy and tailored to regimen
emetogenicity, often using combination agents for moderate or high risk.
5. Which statement about staging is most accurate? What is the main purpose of cancer staging?
A. To identify the exact molecular mutation in every tumor
B. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
C. To measure pain severity
D. To replace pathology
Correct Answer: B. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
Rationale: Staging summarizes anatomic or disease extent and is central to prognosis, treatment selection, and
communication.
6. Which safety-focused response is most appropriate in a situation involving spinal cord compression
-recognition? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which symptom in a patient with
cancer requires urgent evaluation for spinal cord compression?
A. Stable alopecia after chemotherapy
B. Chronic fatigue without neurologic symptoms
,C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
D. Mild taste change
Correct Answer: C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
Rationale: Malignant spinal cord compression can cause irreversible neurologic injury; new focal neurologic
deficits or sphincter changes with back pain require emergency imaging and treatment.
7. Which consideration is most important when evaluating risk related to cisplatin toxicity - safety? Which
safety implication is most important? Which toxicity is strongly associated with cisplatin?
A. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
B. Hemorrhagic cystitis as the dominant toxicity
C. Severe cardiomyopathy as its defining toxicity
D. Pulmonary fibrosis only
Correct Answer: A. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Rationale: Cisplatin is notably nephrotoxic and ototoxic and can also cause electrolyte wasting and significant
nausea and vomiting.
8. Which assessment finding most strongly supports the key concept in tumor suppressor genes? Loss of
function in a tumor suppressor gene generally contributes to cancer by doing what?
A. Preventing cell-cycle progression in all tissues
B. Increasing normal DNA repair fidelity
C. Removing restraints on cell growth or genomic integrity
D. Guaranteeing apoptosis of abnormal cells
Correct Answer: C. Removing restraints on cell growth or genomic integrity
Rationale: Tumor suppressor genes normally restrain proliferation, repair DNA, or promote apoptosis; loss of
function can remove these safeguards.
9. A clinician is reviewing a case involving neutropenic precautions - recognition. Which finding or action
best fits this situation? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which recommendation is
most important for a neutropenic patient at home?
A. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
B. Avoid all fresh foods regardless of preparation
C. Take prophylactic antibiotics without prescription
D. Ignore oral ulcers unless pain is severe
Correct Answer: A. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
Rationale: Fever can be the first sign of serious infection in neutropenia; prompt reporting, hand hygiene, and
safe food practices are central precautions.
10. Which safety-focused response is most appropriate in a situation involving tumor lysis syndrome
-safety? Which safety implication is most important? Which laboratory pattern is typical of tumor lysis
syndrome?
A. Low creatinine with alkalosis only
B. Isolated hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypercalcemia, and low uric acid
D. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia
Correct Answer: D. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia
Rationale: Rapid tumor breakdown releases potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids, leading to hyperkalemia,
hyperphosphatemia, secondary hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia.
11. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving immune checkpoint pneumonitis - safety, the key
issue is identified. What is the most appropriate next step? Which safety implication is most important? A
patient on checkpoint inhibitor therapy develops new dry cough, dyspnea, and diffuse pulmonary opacities.
What toxicity must be considered?
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
C. Peripheral arterial disease
D. Acute appendicitis
Correct Answer: B. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
Rationale: Checkpoint inhibitor pneumonitis can present with cough, dyspnea, hypoxemia, and imaging
abnormalities and may require holding therapy and corticosteroid treatment depending on severity.
,12. Several issues are being considered in a case involving opioid constipation - recognition. Which point
deserves priority? Which statement best captures the defining feature? What prophylactic measure should
usually accompany chronic opioid therapy when not contraindicated?
A. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis
B. A bowel regimen
C. Daily corticosteroids for everyone
D. Fluid restriction
Correct Answer: B. A bowel regimen
Rationale: Opioids commonly reduce gastrointestinal motility; stimulant or osmotic bowel regimens are often
started proactively unless contraindicated.
13. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving staging, the key issue is identified. What is the most
appropriate next step? What is the main purpose of cancer staging?
A. To identify the exact molecular mutation in every tumor
B. To replace pathology
C. To measure pain severity
D. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
Correct Answer: D. To describe extent of disease and support prognosis and treatment planning
Rationale: Staging summarizes anatomic or disease extent and is central to prognosis, treatment selection, and
communication.
14. A student makes an error while reasoning through oral anticancer adherence - recognition. Which
correction is most accurate? Which statement best captures the defining feature? What is an essential
component of safe oral anticancer therapy?
A. Assess adherence, interactions, storage, handling, and toxicity at follow-up
B. Encourage dose doubling after missed doses
C. Assume adherence because medication is taken at home
D. Stop laboratory monitoring
Correct Answer: A. Assess adherence, interactions, storage, handling, and toxicity at follow-up
Rationale: Oral therapy shifts responsibility to the home setting; clinicians must assess adherence and safe use,
interactions, missed-dose instructions, monitoring, and adverse effects.
15. Which outcome would best indicate that the principle or intervention related to spinal cord
compression has been correctly understood or applied? Which symptom in a patient with cancer requires
urgent evaluation for spinal cord compression?
A. Mild taste change
B. Chronic fatigue without neurologic symptoms
C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
D. Stable alopecia after chemotherapy
Correct Answer: C. New back pain with weakness, sensory change, or bladder dysfunction
Rationale: Malignant spinal cord compression can cause irreversible neurologic injury; new focal neurologic
deficits or sphincter changes with back pain require emergency imaging and treatment.
16. Which teaching point about anthracycline cardiotoxicity - recognition is most appropriate? Which
statement best captures the defining feature? Which organ toxicity is classically associated with cumulative
anthracycline exposure?
A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Hypothyroidism only
C. Ototoxicity as the defining toxicity
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis only
Correct Answer: A. Cardiomyopathy
Rationale: Anthracyclines such as doxorubicin can produce dose-related myocardial injury and cardiomyopathy,
so baseline and risk-based cardiac assessment are important.
17. During evaluation of a patient or situation involving malignant hypercalcemia - recognition, the key
issue is identified. What is the most appropriate next step? Which statement best captures the defining
feature? Which finding is consistent with clinically significant hypercalcemia of malignancy?
A. Tetany from severe hypocalcemia only
B. Profound bradycardia from hypothyroidism only
, C. Confusion, constipation, dehydration, and weakness
D. Isolated rash
Correct Answer: C. Confusion, constipation, dehydration, and weakness
Rationale: Hypercalcemia can cause neurocognitive change, gastrointestinal symptoms, polyuria, dehydration,
weakness, and cardiac effects and may require urgent therapy.
18. Which outcome would best indicate that the principle or intervention related to neutropenic
precautions - recognition has been correctly understood or applied? Which statement best captures the
defining feature? Which recommendation is most important for a neutropenic patient at home?
A. Ignore oral ulcers unless pain is severe
B. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
C. Avoid all fresh foods regardless of preparation
D. Take prophylactic antibiotics without prescription
Correct Answer: B. Promptly report fever and use careful hand hygiene and food safety
Rationale: Fever can be the first sign of serious infection in neutropenia; prompt reporting, hand hygiene, and
safe food practices are central precautions.
19. A decision involving superior vena cava syndrome must be made with limited time and competing
priorities. Which choice is most appropriate? Which presentation suggests superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Isolated lower-extremity claudication
B. Painless hematuria only
C. Bilateral otitis media
D. Facial and upper-extremity swelling with venous distention and dyspnea
Correct Answer: D. Facial and upper-extremity swelling with venous distention and dyspnea
Rationale: SVC obstruction causes impaired venous return from the head, neck, and upper extremities, producing
edema, venous distention, dyspnea, and sometimes neurologic symptoms.
20. A differential is being narrowed for a presentation related to radiation dermatitis - recognition. Which
option best fits the defining pattern? Which statement best captures the defining feature? Which skin-care
advice is generally appropriate during external-beam radiation?
A. Use abrasive exfoliants daily
B. Apply heating pads directly to the field
C. Scrub treatment markings vigorously
D. Use gentle skin care and follow site-specific radiation-team guidance
Correct Answer: D. Use gentle skin care and follow site-specific radiation-team guidance
Rationale: Irradiated skin is vulnerable to inflammation; gentle cleansing, avoidance of friction or extreme
temperatures, and adherence to radiation-team instructions are standard supportive principles.
21. Which application of the principle associated with distress screening is correct? Why is routine
psychosocial distress screening used in oncology care?
A. To replace all diagnostic assessment
B. To identify unmet emotional, social, practical, or spiritual needs that may benefit from intervention
C. To determine chemotherapy dose
D. To predict exact survival
Correct Answer: B. To identify unmet emotional, social, practical, or spiritual needs that may benefit from
intervention
Rationale: Distress screening helps detect clinically important psychosocial needs and supports timely referral or
intervention as part of comprehensive cancer care.
22. At follow-up for a case involving oncogenes, which finding or plan is most appropriate? What is the
usual effect of oncogene activation?
A. Selective destruction of all malignant cells
B. Complete shutdown of cellular proliferation
C. Promotion of growth or survival signaling
D. Mandatory senescence in every cell
Correct Answer: C. Promotion of growth or survival signaling
Rationale: Activated oncogenes can drive inappropriate proliferative or survival signaling, contributing to
malignant transformation.
