4N0X1 CDC 5 LEVEL VOL 1 Latest Actual Exam with Verified
Questions & Correct Answers
Question 1.
(001) Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force
Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission? a. AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine. b.
AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development. c. AFDD 2-8, Command and Control. d.
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations.
Correct Answer: D AFDD 4-02, Medical Op-erations.
Question 2.
(001) Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? a. Recommends step by step actions. b. Directs
the actions of commanders. c. Guides commanders in using assets. d. Changes faster than
Air Force guidance.
Correct Answer: C. Guides commanders in using assets.
Question 3.
What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct
objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? a. Basic. b.
Tactical. c. Operational. d. Foundational.
Correct Answer: C.) Operational.
Question 4.
(001) Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? a. The
Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel
economy. b. An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design
vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind. c. An automotive designer because
they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure. d. car
buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as
speed or safety factors.
Correct Answer: D
Question 5.
(002) What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation
(AE) is available? a. Significantly increase. b. Significantly decrease. c. Increased by only
10 percent. d. Decreased by only 10 percent.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6.
(002) Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds? A.)
EMEDS Basic. B.) EMEDS +10. C.) EMEDS +25. D.)All EMEDS have inpatient beds.
,Correct Answer: A
Question 7.
(002) Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? a. Mental
Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical
Support (EMEDS) commander. b. Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS
commanders. c. Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional
training. d. The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with
additional training
Correct Answer: C
Question 8.
(002) Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical
evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification? a.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support. b. 12 hours for routine
AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support. c. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12
hours for urgent AE support. d. 36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent
AE support.
Correct Answer: C
Question 9.
What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support
(EMEDS) +25? a. 32. b. 51. c. 86. d. 94.
Correct Answer: C
Question 10.
(003) The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level? a. 4N000. b.
4N031. c. N051. d. 4N071.
Correct Answer: A
Question 11.
(003) Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan
(CFETP)? a. Group superintendent. b. Surgeon general. c. Air Force career field manager.
d. Career development course writer.
Correct Answer: C
Question 12.
(004) What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? a. first
b. Second. c. Third. d. Fifth.
Correct Answer: A
, Question 13.
(005) Who may request a 4NOX1 Job Inventory? a. Chief nurse. b. Command chief. c.
Career field manager. d. Medical Group commander.
Correct Answer: C
Question 14.
(005) How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed? a. Every 6 months. b.
Annually. c. Every 3 years. d. Every 5 years.
Correct Answer: C
Question 15.
(005) Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)? a.
Commander. b. Supervisor. c. 3-level, d. 5-level.
Correct Answer: B
Question 16.
(006) Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training? a Maintain
skills. b. Prevent lawsuits. c. Ensure promotion. d. To complete formal training course.
Correct Answer: A
Question 17.
(006) Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force
specialty code (AFSC) training in what location? a. Stateside base. b. Deployed setting. c.
Reserve duty station. d. Air National Guard base.
Correct Answer: B
Question 18.
(007) What timeframe best to conduct inservice training within your unit? a. During shift
change. b. On training days. c. In the afternoons. d. In the morning.
Correct Answer: B
Question 19.
(008) The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline a. patient treatment plans. b.
patient treatment milestones. c. training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area.
d. training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area.
Correct Answer: D
Questions & Correct Answers
Question 1.
(001) Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force
Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission? a. AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine. b.
AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development. c. AFDD 2-8, Command and Control. d.
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations.
Correct Answer: D AFDD 4-02, Medical Op-erations.
Question 2.
(001) Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? a. Recommends step by step actions. b. Directs
the actions of commanders. c. Guides commanders in using assets. d. Changes faster than
Air Force guidance.
Correct Answer: C. Guides commanders in using assets.
Question 3.
What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct
objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? a. Basic. b.
Tactical. c. Operational. d. Foundational.
Correct Answer: C.) Operational.
Question 4.
(001) Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? a. The
Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel
economy. b. An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design
vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind. c. An automotive designer because
they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure. d. car
buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as
speed or safety factors.
Correct Answer: D
Question 5.
(002) What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation
(AE) is available? a. Significantly increase. b. Significantly decrease. c. Increased by only
10 percent. d. Decreased by only 10 percent.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6.
(002) Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds? A.)
EMEDS Basic. B.) EMEDS +10. C.) EMEDS +25. D.)All EMEDS have inpatient beds.
,Correct Answer: A
Question 7.
(002) Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? a. Mental
Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical
Support (EMEDS) commander. b. Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS
commanders. c. Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional
training. d. The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with
additional training
Correct Answer: C
Question 8.
(002) Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical
evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification? a.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support. b. 12 hours for routine
AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support. c. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12
hours for urgent AE support. d. 36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent
AE support.
Correct Answer: C
Question 9.
What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support
(EMEDS) +25? a. 32. b. 51. c. 86. d. 94.
Correct Answer: C
Question 10.
(003) The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level? a. 4N000. b.
4N031. c. N051. d. 4N071.
Correct Answer: A
Question 11.
(003) Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan
(CFETP)? a. Group superintendent. b. Surgeon general. c. Air Force career field manager.
d. Career development course writer.
Correct Answer: C
Question 12.
(004) What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? a. first
b. Second. c. Third. d. Fifth.
Correct Answer: A
, Question 13.
(005) Who may request a 4NOX1 Job Inventory? a. Chief nurse. b. Command chief. c.
Career field manager. d. Medical Group commander.
Correct Answer: C
Question 14.
(005) How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed? a. Every 6 months. b.
Annually. c. Every 3 years. d. Every 5 years.
Correct Answer: C
Question 15.
(005) Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)? a.
Commander. b. Supervisor. c. 3-level, d. 5-level.
Correct Answer: B
Question 16.
(006) Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training? a Maintain
skills. b. Prevent lawsuits. c. Ensure promotion. d. To complete formal training course.
Correct Answer: A
Question 17.
(006) Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force
specialty code (AFSC) training in what location? a. Stateside base. b. Deployed setting. c.
Reserve duty station. d. Air National Guard base.
Correct Answer: B
Question 18.
(007) What timeframe best to conduct inservice training within your unit? a. During shift
change. b. On training days. c. In the afternoons. d. In the morning.
Correct Answer: B
Question 19.
(008) The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline a. patient treatment plans. b.
patient treatment milestones. c. training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area.
d. training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area.
Correct Answer: D
