ATI PN NGN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core Domains
• Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment
• Intrapartum Care & Fetal Monitoring
• Postpartum Care & Complications
• Newborn Assessment & Care
• High-Risk Pregnancy & Pharmacology
Introduction
This comprehensive practice examination assesses the knowledge
required for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam with Next
Generation NCLEX (NGN) items. It evaluates clinical judgment,
prioritization, and safe nursing care across the childbearing continuum.
Questions emphasize antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and
newborn care, with integration of high-risk pregnancy conditions and
pharmacologic management. The examination prepares practical
nursing students for safe, evidence-based maternal-newborn practice.
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is
receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate 14/min
D. Magnesium level 6 mEq/L
Correct answer: B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
, RATIONALE: A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr is a sign of
magnesium toxicity as the medication is excreted by the kidneys. Deep
tendon reflexes of 2+ and a respiratory rate of 14/min are within normal
limits. A magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is within the therapeutic range for
seizure prophylaxis.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor and
has an internal fetal scalp electrode. The nurse observes late
decelerations on the monitor. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?
A. Increase the rate of the maintenance IV fluid
B. Change the client's position to a side-lying position
C. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 10 L/min
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B. Change the client's position to a side-lying
position
RATIONALE: According to the nursing process, the nurse should
first implement the least invasive intervention to improve placental
perfusion. Changing to a side-lying position alleviates pressure on the
vena cava and improves blood flow to the placenta. Repositioning is the
immediate priority before oxygen or provider notification.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is
postpartum and has a prescription for a rubella immunization.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. The vaccine should be repeated in 3 months
B. Do not breastfeed for 48 hours following the injection
C. Expect a low-grade fever for the next week
D. Avoid becoming pregnant for at least 28 days
, Correct answer: D. Avoid becoming pregnant for at least 28 days
RATIONALE: The rubella vaccine is a live virus and is teratogenic.
Clients must avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks (28 days) post-
vaccination. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of
respiratory distress? (Select All That Apply)
A. Nasal flaring
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Grunting
D. Chest retractions
E. Respiratory rate of 50/min
F. Abdominal breathing
Correct answer: A, C, D
RATIONALE: Nasal flaring, grunting, and chest retractions are
classic signs of newborn respiratory distress indicating increased work
of breathing. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24-48 hours.
Respiratory rate of 50/min and abdominal breathing are normal newborn
findings.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and
reports abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Which of the
following assessments is the priority?
A. Check maternal blood pressure
B. Assess fetal heart rate
C. Determine the amount of vaginal bleeding
D. Perform a vaginal examination
, Correct answer: B. Assess fetal heart rate
RATIONALE: In suspected abruptio placentae or placenta previa,
assessing fetal well-being is the primary concern to determine if
immediate delivery is necessary. Vaginal examinations are
contraindicated with unexplained vaginal bleeding until placenta previa
is ruled out.
6. A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation who reports
nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse
recommend?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods
C. Consume large meals at bedtime
D. Avoid all fluids until symptoms subside
Correct answer: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
RATIONALE: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is best
managed by eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach from
becoming empty. Spicy foods may worsen nausea, and fluid avoidance
risks dehydration.
7. A client in active labor is dilated to 7 cm. The fetal heart rate
shows late decelerations. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to the left side
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Prepare for immediate delivery
D. Increase IV fluid rate
Correct answer: A. Reposition the client to the left side
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core Domains
• Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment
• Intrapartum Care & Fetal Monitoring
• Postpartum Care & Complications
• Newborn Assessment & Care
• High-Risk Pregnancy & Pharmacology
Introduction
This comprehensive practice examination assesses the knowledge
required for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam with Next
Generation NCLEX (NGN) items. It evaluates clinical judgment,
prioritization, and safe nursing care across the childbearing continuum.
Questions emphasize antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and
newborn care, with integration of high-risk pregnancy conditions and
pharmacologic management. The examination prepares practical
nursing students for safe, evidence-based maternal-newborn practice.
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is
receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate 14/min
D. Magnesium level 6 mEq/L
Correct answer: B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
, RATIONALE: A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr is a sign of
magnesium toxicity as the medication is excreted by the kidneys. Deep
tendon reflexes of 2+ and a respiratory rate of 14/min are within normal
limits. A magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is within the therapeutic range for
seizure prophylaxis.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor and
has an internal fetal scalp electrode. The nurse observes late
decelerations on the monitor. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?
A. Increase the rate of the maintenance IV fluid
B. Change the client's position to a side-lying position
C. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 10 L/min
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B. Change the client's position to a side-lying
position
RATIONALE: According to the nursing process, the nurse should
first implement the least invasive intervention to improve placental
perfusion. Changing to a side-lying position alleviates pressure on the
vena cava and improves blood flow to the placenta. Repositioning is the
immediate priority before oxygen or provider notification.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is
postpartum and has a prescription for a rubella immunization.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. The vaccine should be repeated in 3 months
B. Do not breastfeed for 48 hours following the injection
C. Expect a low-grade fever for the next week
D. Avoid becoming pregnant for at least 28 days
, Correct answer: D. Avoid becoming pregnant for at least 28 days
RATIONALE: The rubella vaccine is a live virus and is teratogenic.
Clients must avoid pregnancy for at least 4 weeks (28 days) post-
vaccination. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of
respiratory distress? (Select All That Apply)
A. Nasal flaring
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Grunting
D. Chest retractions
E. Respiratory rate of 50/min
F. Abdominal breathing
Correct answer: A, C, D
RATIONALE: Nasal flaring, grunting, and chest retractions are
classic signs of newborn respiratory distress indicating increased work
of breathing. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24-48 hours.
Respiratory rate of 50/min and abdominal breathing are normal newborn
findings.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and
reports abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Which of the
following assessments is the priority?
A. Check maternal blood pressure
B. Assess fetal heart rate
C. Determine the amount of vaginal bleeding
D. Perform a vaginal examination
, Correct answer: B. Assess fetal heart rate
RATIONALE: In suspected abruptio placentae or placenta previa,
assessing fetal well-being is the primary concern to determine if
immediate delivery is necessary. Vaginal examinations are
contraindicated with unexplained vaginal bleeding until placenta previa
is ruled out.
6. A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation who reports
nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse
recommend?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods
C. Consume large meals at bedtime
D. Avoid all fluids until symptoms subside
Correct answer: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
RATIONALE: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is best
managed by eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach from
becoming empty. Spicy foods may worsen nausea, and fluid avoidance
risks dehydration.
7. A client in active labor is dilated to 7 cm. The fetal heart rate
shows late decelerations. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to the left side
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Prepare for immediate delivery
D. Increase IV fluid rate
Correct answer: A. Reposition the client to the left side
