NR574 CEA Pre-Diagnostic Assessment
Exam Questions with Correct Answers &
Rationales
Course: NR 574 Acute Care Practicum I
Institution: Chamberlain University
Format: Multiple Choice — Select the Single
Best Answer
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR
EMERGENCIES & ACUTE CORONARY
SYNDROMES
Q1. A 68-year-old patient with acute chest pain
and ST elevation in leads V1–V4 is diagnosed
with an anterior STEMI. What is the priority
intervention?
1
,A) Prepare for immediate percutaneous
coronary intervention (PCI)
B) Administer aspirin 325 mg orally
C) Obtain cardiac enzymes
D) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
Answer: A
Explanation: Immediate reperfusion via PCI is
the priority to limit myocardial damage.
Aspirin and nitroglycerin are adjunctive but
not the priority. Cardiac enzymes confirm the
diagnosis but should not delay reperfusion.
Timely PCI reduces mortality .
2
,Q2. A 68-year-old male with a history of
hypertension presents with sudden severe
tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is
210/110 mmHg in the right arm and 150/90
mmHg in the left arm. Chest X-ray shows
widened mediastinum. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic dissection
D) Pericarditis
Answer: C
Explanation: Classic presentation of type A
aortic dissection includes sudden tearing pain
radiating to the back, unequal blood pressures
in the arms (pulse deficit), and widened
3
, mediastinum on CXR. Hypertension is the
most important risk factor .
Q3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started
on warfarin. Which INR range indicates
therapeutic effect for nonvalvular atrial
fibrillation?
A) 2.0–3.0
B) 1.5–2.0
C) 2.5–3.5
D) 3.0–4.0
Answer: A
4
Exam Questions with Correct Answers &
Rationales
Course: NR 574 Acute Care Practicum I
Institution: Chamberlain University
Format: Multiple Choice — Select the Single
Best Answer
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR
EMERGENCIES & ACUTE CORONARY
SYNDROMES
Q1. A 68-year-old patient with acute chest pain
and ST elevation in leads V1–V4 is diagnosed
with an anterior STEMI. What is the priority
intervention?
1
,A) Prepare for immediate percutaneous
coronary intervention (PCI)
B) Administer aspirin 325 mg orally
C) Obtain cardiac enzymes
D) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
Answer: A
Explanation: Immediate reperfusion via PCI is
the priority to limit myocardial damage.
Aspirin and nitroglycerin are adjunctive but
not the priority. Cardiac enzymes confirm the
diagnosis but should not delay reperfusion.
Timely PCI reduces mortality .
2
,Q2. A 68-year-old male with a history of
hypertension presents with sudden severe
tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is
210/110 mmHg in the right arm and 150/90
mmHg in the left arm. Chest X-ray shows
widened mediastinum. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic dissection
D) Pericarditis
Answer: C
Explanation: Classic presentation of type A
aortic dissection includes sudden tearing pain
radiating to the back, unequal blood pressures
in the arms (pulse deficit), and widened
3
, mediastinum on CXR. Hypertension is the
most important risk factor .
Q3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started
on warfarin. Which INR range indicates
therapeutic effect for nonvalvular atrial
fibrillation?
A) 2.0–3.0
B) 1.5–2.0
C) 2.5–3.5
D) 3.0–4.0
Answer: A
4
