ACLS Exam Version A questions with answers

9. Which action increases the chance of successful conversion of ventricular fibrillation? A. Pausing chest compressions immediately after a defibrillation attempt B. Administering 4 quick ventilations immediately before a defibrillation attempt C. Using manual defibrillator paddles with light pressure against the chest D. Providing quality compressions immediately before a defibrillation attempt 10. Which situation BEST describes pulseless electrical activity? A. Asystole without a pulse B. Sinus rhythm without a pulse C. Torsades de pointes with a pulse D. Ventricular tachycardia with a pulse 11. What is the BEST strategy for performing high-quality CPR on a patient with an advanced airway in place? A. Provide compressions and ventilations with a 15:2 ratio. B. Provide compressions and ventilations with a 30:2 ratio. C. Provide a single ventilation every 6 seconds during the compression pause. D. Provide continuous chest compressions without pauses and 10 ventilations per minute. 12. Three minutes after witnessing a cardiac arrest, one member of your team inserts an endotracheal tube while another performs continuous chest compressions. During subsequent ventilation, you notice the presence of a waveform on the capnography screen and a PETCO2 level of 8 mm Hg. What is the significance of this finding? A. Chest compressions may not be effective. B. The endotracheal tube is no longer in the trachea. C. The patient meets the criteria for termination of efforts. D. The team is ventilating the patient too often (hyperventilation). 13. The use of quantitative capnography in intubated patients A. allows for monitoring of CPR quality. B. measures oxygen levels at the alveoli level. C. determines inspired carbon dioxide relating to cardiac output. D. detects electrolyte abnormalities early in code management.14. For the past 25 minutes, an EMS crew has attempted resuscitation of a patient who originally presented in ventricular fibrillation. After the first shock, the ECG screen displayed asystole, which has persisted despite 2 doses of epinephrine, a fluid bolus, and high-quality CPR. What is your next treatment? A. Apply a transcutaneous pacemaker. B. Administer 1 mg of intravenous atropine. C. Administer 40 units of intravenous vasopressin. D. Consider terminating resuscitative efforts after consulting medical control. 15. Which is a safe and effective practice within the defibrillation sequence? A. Stop chest compressions as you charge the defibrillator. B. Be sure oxygen is not blowing over the patient’s chest during the shock. C. Assess for the presence of a pulse immediately after the shock. D. Commandingly announce “clear” after you deliver the defibrillation shock. 16. During your assessment, your patient suddenly loses consciousness. After calling for help and determining that the patient is not breathing, you are unsure whether the patient has a pulse. What is your next action? A. Leave and get an AED. B. Begin chest compressions. C. Deliver 2 quick ventilations. D. Check the patient’s mouth for the presence of a foreign body. 17. What is an advantage of using hands-free defibrillation pads instead of defibrillation paddles? A. Hands-free pads deliver more energy than paddles. B. Hands-free pads increase electrical arc. C. Hands-free pads allow for a more rapid defibrillation. D. Hands-free pads have universal adaptors that can work with any machine. 18. What action is recommended to help minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? A. Continue CPR while charging the defibrillator. B. Perform pulse checks immediately after defibrillation. C. Administer IV medications only when delivering breaths. D. Continue to use an AED even after the arrival of a manual defibrillator. 19. Which action is included in the BLS Survey? A. Early defibrillation B. Advanced airway management C. Rapid medication administration D. Preparation for therapeutic hypothermia20. Which drug and dose are recommended for the management of a patient in refractory ventricular fibrillation? A. Atropine 2 mg B. Amiodarone 300 mg C. Vasopressin 1 mg/kg D. Dopamine 2 mg/kg per minute 21. What is the appropriate interval for an interruption in chest compressions? A. 10 seconds or less B. 10 to 15 seconds C. 15 to 20 seconds D. Interruptions are never acceptable 22. Which of the following is a sign of effective CPR? A. PETCO2 ≥10 mm Hg B. Measured urine output of 1 mL/kg per hour C. Patient temperature >32°C (89.6°F) D. Diastolic intra-arterial pressure <20 mm Hg 23. What is the primary purpose of a medical emergency team (MET) or rapid response team (RRT)? A. Identifying and treating early clinical deterioration B. Rapidly intervening with patients admitted through emergency department triage C. Responding to patients during a disaster or multiple-patient situation D. Responding to patients after activation of the emergency response system 24. Which action improves the quality of chest compressions delivered during a resuscitation attempt? A. Observe ECG rhythm to determine depth of compressions. B. Do not allow the chest to fully recoil with each compression. C. Compress the upper half of the sternum at a rate of 150 compressions per minute. D. Switch providers about every 2 minutes or every 5 compression cycles. 25. What is the appropriate ventilation strategy for an adult in respiratory arrest with a pulse rate of 80/min? A. 1 breath every 3 to 4 seconds B. 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds C. 2 breaths every 5 to 6 seconds D. 2 breaths every 6 to 8 seconds