Pharmacology Basic and Clinical
Pharmacology (14th Edition) by Bertram G.
Katzung and Anthony J. Trevor All chapters
questions and correct answers
.
Chapter 1: Introduction, Drug Development, and Regulation
Q1: What term describes the study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and
their mechanisms of action?
A1: Pharmacodynamics.
Q2: What phase of clinical trials typically involves a small group of healthy human volunteers
(20–100) to evaluate safety and pharmacokinetics?
A2: Phase 1 clinical trials.
Q3: Which federal agency in the United States is responsible for regulating the approval,
manufacturing, and marketing of prescription and over-the-counter drugs?
A3: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
Q4: What type of study design minimizes bias by ensuring neither the patients nor the
investigators know who receives the active drug versus the placebo?
A4: Double-blind, randomized controlled trial.
Chapter 2: Drug Receptors and Pharmacodynamics
Q5: What is the term for a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a maximal
biological response?
A5: Full agonist.
Q6: How does a competitive antagonist affect the agonist concentration-effect curve?
A6: It shifts the curve to the right (increasing the apparent E C50 ) without changing the maximal
efficacy.
Q7: What is the negative logarithm of the concentration of an antagonist that requires a doubling
of agonist concentration to achieve the same effect ( p A 2)?
A7: The equilibrium dissociation constant measure of antagonist potency.
,Q8: What term describes a receptor-bound signaling molecule that exhibits intrinsic activity less
than that of a full agonist, even when occupying all receptors?
A8: Partial agonist.
Q9: What phenomenon occurs when repeated administration of a drug results in a decreased
pharmacological response over time?
A9: Tachyphylaxis or tolerance.
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
Q10: What pharmacokinetic parameter defines the volume of fluid required to contain the entire
body amount of a drug at the same concentration measured in the plasma?
A10: Volume of distribution (V d ).
Q11: What type of chemical elimination kinetics occurs when a constant fraction of the drug is
eliminated per unit of time, dependent on drug concentration?
A11: First-order elimination kinetics.
Q12: What equation is used to calculate the maintenance dose of a drug based on clearance,
target plasma concentration, and bioavailability?
Clearance × Target Concentration
A12: Maintenance Dose=
Bioavailability
Q13: Approximately how many elimination half-lives does it take for a drug administered via
continuous infusion or fixed dosing to reach 90% of steady-state concentration?
A13: Approximately 3.3 half-lives (and 97% at 5 half-lives).
Chapter 4: Drug Biotransformation
Q14: Which major phase of drug biotransformation involves non-synthetic reactions such as
oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis, frequently mediated by the cytochrome P450 system?
A14: Phase 1 reactions.
Q15: Which specific human cytochrome P450 isoform is responsible for metabolizing the largest
percentage of prescription medications?
A15: CYP3A4.
Q16: What term describes a drug or chemical that decreases the enzymatic activity of
cytochrome P450 isoenzymes, potentially leading to drug toxicity?
A16: Enzyme inhibitor.
Chapter 5: Pharmacogenomics
, Q17: What genetic polymorphism in phase 2 drug-metabolizing enzymes can lead to peripheral
neuropathy or lupus-like syndromes when individuals take standard doses of isoniazid?
A17: N-acetyltransferase (NAT) polymorphism (slow acetylator phenotype).
Q18: Deficiency of which red blood cell enzyme can precipitate acute hemolytic anemia when
patients are exposed to oxidative drugs like primaquine or sulfonamides?
A18: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency.
Chapter 6: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
Q19: What neurotransmitter is synthesized and released by all preganglionic autonomic fibers as
well as somatic motor fibers?
A19: Acetylcholine (ACh).
Q20: Which endogenous catecholamine is synthesized from tyrosine, serves as the primary
neurotransmitter of postganglionic sympathetic adrenergic fibers, and acts heavily on alpha and
beta receptors?
A20: Norepinephrine.
Chapter 7: Cholinoceptor-Activating and Cholinesterase-
Inhibiting Drugs
Q21: What direct-acting muscarinic agonist is frequently used locally as an ophthalmic solution
to induce miosis during eye surgery?
A21: Acetylcholine or carbachol (or pilocarpine).
Q22: What is the primary clinical indication for using the long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor
pyridostigmine?
A22: Myasthenia gravis.
Q23: What classic antidote combination is administered to treat severe organophosphate
insecticide poisoning?
A23: Atropine (to block muscarinic excess) and pralidoxime (AChE regenerator).
Chapter 8: Cholinoceptor-Blocking Drugs
Q24: What prototype naturally occurring belladonna alkaloid acts as a competitive muscarinic
receptor blocker and treats symptomatic bradycardia?
A24: Atropine.
Q25: What characteristic peripheral side effect profile is classically associated with systemic
administration of antimuscarinic drugs like scopolamine or atropine?
A25: Dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation ("cant see, cant
pee, cant spit, cant shit").
Pharmacology (14th Edition) by Bertram G.
Katzung and Anthony J. Trevor All chapters
questions and correct answers
.
Chapter 1: Introduction, Drug Development, and Regulation
Q1: What term describes the study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and
their mechanisms of action?
A1: Pharmacodynamics.
Q2: What phase of clinical trials typically involves a small group of healthy human volunteers
(20–100) to evaluate safety and pharmacokinetics?
A2: Phase 1 clinical trials.
Q3: Which federal agency in the United States is responsible for regulating the approval,
manufacturing, and marketing of prescription and over-the-counter drugs?
A3: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
Q4: What type of study design minimizes bias by ensuring neither the patients nor the
investigators know who receives the active drug versus the placebo?
A4: Double-blind, randomized controlled trial.
Chapter 2: Drug Receptors and Pharmacodynamics
Q5: What is the term for a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a maximal
biological response?
A5: Full agonist.
Q6: How does a competitive antagonist affect the agonist concentration-effect curve?
A6: It shifts the curve to the right (increasing the apparent E C50 ) without changing the maximal
efficacy.
Q7: What is the negative logarithm of the concentration of an antagonist that requires a doubling
of agonist concentration to achieve the same effect ( p A 2)?
A7: The equilibrium dissociation constant measure of antagonist potency.
,Q8: What term describes a receptor-bound signaling molecule that exhibits intrinsic activity less
than that of a full agonist, even when occupying all receptors?
A8: Partial agonist.
Q9: What phenomenon occurs when repeated administration of a drug results in a decreased
pharmacological response over time?
A9: Tachyphylaxis or tolerance.
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
Q10: What pharmacokinetic parameter defines the volume of fluid required to contain the entire
body amount of a drug at the same concentration measured in the plasma?
A10: Volume of distribution (V d ).
Q11: What type of chemical elimination kinetics occurs when a constant fraction of the drug is
eliminated per unit of time, dependent on drug concentration?
A11: First-order elimination kinetics.
Q12: What equation is used to calculate the maintenance dose of a drug based on clearance,
target plasma concentration, and bioavailability?
Clearance × Target Concentration
A12: Maintenance Dose=
Bioavailability
Q13: Approximately how many elimination half-lives does it take for a drug administered via
continuous infusion or fixed dosing to reach 90% of steady-state concentration?
A13: Approximately 3.3 half-lives (and 97% at 5 half-lives).
Chapter 4: Drug Biotransformation
Q14: Which major phase of drug biotransformation involves non-synthetic reactions such as
oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis, frequently mediated by the cytochrome P450 system?
A14: Phase 1 reactions.
Q15: Which specific human cytochrome P450 isoform is responsible for metabolizing the largest
percentage of prescription medications?
A15: CYP3A4.
Q16: What term describes a drug or chemical that decreases the enzymatic activity of
cytochrome P450 isoenzymes, potentially leading to drug toxicity?
A16: Enzyme inhibitor.
Chapter 5: Pharmacogenomics
, Q17: What genetic polymorphism in phase 2 drug-metabolizing enzymes can lead to peripheral
neuropathy or lupus-like syndromes when individuals take standard doses of isoniazid?
A17: N-acetyltransferase (NAT) polymorphism (slow acetylator phenotype).
Q18: Deficiency of which red blood cell enzyme can precipitate acute hemolytic anemia when
patients are exposed to oxidative drugs like primaquine or sulfonamides?
A18: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency.
Chapter 6: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
Q19: What neurotransmitter is synthesized and released by all preganglionic autonomic fibers as
well as somatic motor fibers?
A19: Acetylcholine (ACh).
Q20: Which endogenous catecholamine is synthesized from tyrosine, serves as the primary
neurotransmitter of postganglionic sympathetic adrenergic fibers, and acts heavily on alpha and
beta receptors?
A20: Norepinephrine.
Chapter 7: Cholinoceptor-Activating and Cholinesterase-
Inhibiting Drugs
Q21: What direct-acting muscarinic agonist is frequently used locally as an ophthalmic solution
to induce miosis during eye surgery?
A21: Acetylcholine or carbachol (or pilocarpine).
Q22: What is the primary clinical indication for using the long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor
pyridostigmine?
A22: Myasthenia gravis.
Q23: What classic antidote combination is administered to treat severe organophosphate
insecticide poisoning?
A23: Atropine (to block muscarinic excess) and pralidoxime (AChE regenerator).
Chapter 8: Cholinoceptor-Blocking Drugs
Q24: What prototype naturally occurring belladonna alkaloid acts as a competitive muscarinic
receptor blocker and treats symptomatic bradycardia?
A24: Atropine.
Q25: What characteristic peripheral side effect profile is classically associated with systemic
administration of antimuscarinic drugs like scopolamine or atropine?
A25: Dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation ("cant see, cant
pee, cant spit, cant shit").
