NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses -
Exam 2 Review (2026/2027 Update)
Pathophysiology for Nurses I Review
Questions and Answers Grade A 100%
NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses - Exam | Comprehensive
Examination
NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses - Exam 2 Review
(2026/2027 Update) Pathophysiology for Nurses I Review
Questions and Answers Grade A 100% Correct (Verified
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses - Exam 2
Review (2026/2027 Update) Pathophysiology for Nurses I
Review Questions and Answers Grade A 100% Correct
(Verified Solutions) Instant pdf - Galen. Every item uses a
focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed response,
and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand the
subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A tissue biopsy from a chronically ischemic organ shows cells with intact
plasma membranes but markedly swollen mitochondria and multiple
autophagic vacuoles. Which conclusion about this injury is most defensible?
A. Irreversible injury has occurred because mitochondrial swelling is
always a terminal event.
B. The injury is reversible if perfusion is restored before membrane
integrity is lost.
C. The cells have undergone apoptosis rather than necrosis.
D. The findings indicate coagulative necrosis with karyolysis.
Correct Answer: B - The injury is reversible if perfusion is
restored before membrane integrity is lost.
RATIONALE
Hydropic change with mitochondrial swelling and autophagic
vacuoles reflects reversible injury driven by ATP depletion and
Na+/K+-ATPase failure; membrane integrity is the key threshold for
irreversibility. Apoptosis shows cell shrinkage and nuclear
fragmentation rather than swelling, and coagulative necrosis requires
loss of membrane integrity with nuclear dissolution.
Question 2
Two patients have identical serum sodium values, but one has a normal serum
osmolality and the other has a markedly elevated serum osmolality. Which
mechanism best explains this divergence?
A. Difference in effective circulating volume detected by baroreceptors
rather than osmoreceptors.
B. Presence of an osmotically active solute other than sodium, such as
glucose or mannitol.
C. Variation in renal free-water clearance independent of antidiuretic
hormone.
Page 2
, D. Difference in intracellular potassium shifting into the extracellular
space.
Correct Answer: B - Presence of an osmotically active solute
other than sodium, such as glucose or mannitol.
RATIONALE
Serum osmolality is determined by all osmotically active solutes, not
sodium alone; an unmeasured osmole such as glucose or mannitol
raises osmolality without changing sodium. Baroreceptor-mediated
volume sensing and potassium shifts do not directly create this
sodium-osmolality dissociation.
Question 3
In acute inflammation, which sequence correctly describes the progression of
leukocyte-endothelial interactions that culminates in transmigration?
A. Margination -> rolling (selectins) -> firm adhesion (integrins) ->
transmigration
B. Rolling (integrins) -> margination -> firm adhesion (selectins) ->
transmigration
C. Firm adhesion (selectins) -> rolling (integrins) -> margination ->
transmigration
D. Transmigration -> margination -> rolling -> firm adhesion
Correct Answer: A - Margination -> rolling (selectins) -> firm
adhesion (integrins) -> transmigration
RATIONALE
Leukocytes first marginate, then roll via selectin-carbohydrate
interactions, then adhere firmly through integrin activation by
chemokines, and finally transmigrate. Reversing selectins and
integrins or placing transmigration first contradicts the established
adhesion cascade.
Page 3
, Question 4
A patient develops urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension within minutes of an
IV antibiotic. Which mechanism best explains the hypotension?
A. IgG-mediated complement activation with neutrophil sequestration.
B. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation with vasoactive mediator
release.
C. Immune complex deposition in vascular endothelium.
D. T-cell-mediated direct endothelial cytotoxicity.
Correct Answer: B - IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation with
vasoactive mediator release.
RATIONALE
This is anaphylaxis, a type I immediate hypersensitivity driven by IgE
cross-linking on mast cells, releasing histamine and other mediators
that cause vasodilation and increased permeability. Complement- and
immune-complex mechanisms (types II and III) and T-cell
cytotoxicity (type IV) do not produce this immediate vasoactive
picture.
Question 5
A patient with a chronic inflammatory condition has a normocytic anemia, low
serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and normal-to-elevated ferritin. Which
mechanism is most consistent with these findings?
A. Iron deficiency from chronic blood loss.
B. Anemia of chronic disease with hepcidin-mediated iron sequestration.
C. Hemolytic anemia with increased erythropoiesis.
D. Megaloblastic anemia from vitamin B12 deficiency.
Correct Answer: B - Anemia of chronic disease with
hepcidin-mediated iron sequestration.
Page 4
Exam 2 Review (2026/2027 Update)
Pathophysiology for Nurses I Review
Questions and Answers Grade A 100%
NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses - Exam | Comprehensive
Examination
NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses - Exam 2 Review
(2026/2027 Update) Pathophysiology for Nurses I Review
Questions and Answers Grade A 100% Correct (Verified
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses - Exam 2
Review (2026/2027 Update) Pathophysiology for Nurses I
Review Questions and Answers Grade A 100% Correct
(Verified Solutions) Instant pdf - Galen. Every item uses a
focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed response,
and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand the
subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A tissue biopsy from a chronically ischemic organ shows cells with intact
plasma membranes but markedly swollen mitochondria and multiple
autophagic vacuoles. Which conclusion about this injury is most defensible?
A. Irreversible injury has occurred because mitochondrial swelling is
always a terminal event.
B. The injury is reversible if perfusion is restored before membrane
integrity is lost.
C. The cells have undergone apoptosis rather than necrosis.
D. The findings indicate coagulative necrosis with karyolysis.
Correct Answer: B - The injury is reversible if perfusion is
restored before membrane integrity is lost.
RATIONALE
Hydropic change with mitochondrial swelling and autophagic
vacuoles reflects reversible injury driven by ATP depletion and
Na+/K+-ATPase failure; membrane integrity is the key threshold for
irreversibility. Apoptosis shows cell shrinkage and nuclear
fragmentation rather than swelling, and coagulative necrosis requires
loss of membrane integrity with nuclear dissolution.
Question 2
Two patients have identical serum sodium values, but one has a normal serum
osmolality and the other has a markedly elevated serum osmolality. Which
mechanism best explains this divergence?
A. Difference in effective circulating volume detected by baroreceptors
rather than osmoreceptors.
B. Presence of an osmotically active solute other than sodium, such as
glucose or mannitol.
C. Variation in renal free-water clearance independent of antidiuretic
hormone.
Page 2
, D. Difference in intracellular potassium shifting into the extracellular
space.
Correct Answer: B - Presence of an osmotically active solute
other than sodium, such as glucose or mannitol.
RATIONALE
Serum osmolality is determined by all osmotically active solutes, not
sodium alone; an unmeasured osmole such as glucose or mannitol
raises osmolality without changing sodium. Baroreceptor-mediated
volume sensing and potassium shifts do not directly create this
sodium-osmolality dissociation.
Question 3
In acute inflammation, which sequence correctly describes the progression of
leukocyte-endothelial interactions that culminates in transmigration?
A. Margination -> rolling (selectins) -> firm adhesion (integrins) ->
transmigration
B. Rolling (integrins) -> margination -> firm adhesion (selectins) ->
transmigration
C. Firm adhesion (selectins) -> rolling (integrins) -> margination ->
transmigration
D. Transmigration -> margination -> rolling -> firm adhesion
Correct Answer: A - Margination -> rolling (selectins) -> firm
adhesion (integrins) -> transmigration
RATIONALE
Leukocytes first marginate, then roll via selectin-carbohydrate
interactions, then adhere firmly through integrin activation by
chemokines, and finally transmigrate. Reversing selectins and
integrins or placing transmigration first contradicts the established
adhesion cascade.
Page 3
, Question 4
A patient develops urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension within minutes of an
IV antibiotic. Which mechanism best explains the hypotension?
A. IgG-mediated complement activation with neutrophil sequestration.
B. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation with vasoactive mediator
release.
C. Immune complex deposition in vascular endothelium.
D. T-cell-mediated direct endothelial cytotoxicity.
Correct Answer: B - IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation with
vasoactive mediator release.
RATIONALE
This is anaphylaxis, a type I immediate hypersensitivity driven by IgE
cross-linking on mast cells, releasing histamine and other mediators
that cause vasodilation and increased permeability. Complement- and
immune-complex mechanisms (types II and III) and T-cell
cytotoxicity (type IV) do not produce this immediate vasoactive
picture.
Question 5
A patient with a chronic inflammatory condition has a normocytic anemia, low
serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and normal-to-elevated ferritin. Which
mechanism is most consistent with these findings?
A. Iron deficiency from chronic blood loss.
B. Anemia of chronic disease with hepcidin-mediated iron sequestration.
C. Hemolytic anemia with increased erythropoiesis.
D. Megaloblastic anemia from vitamin B12 deficiency.
Correct Answer: B - Anemia of chronic disease with
hepcidin-mediated iron sequestration.
Page 4
