ATI Maternal Newborn Comprehensive Predictor 2026/2027 | ATI RN Maternal Newborn
Comprehensive Predictor Exam Prep, ATI Comprehensive Predictor Study Guide, Practice
Tests, Practice Questions & Answers, NCLEX Readiness Review, Maternal-Newborn
Nursing, Pregnancy & Fetal Development, High-Risk Pregnancy, Antepartum Care,
Intrapartum Nursing, Labor & Delivery, Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, Newborn
Complications, Hypertensive Disorders, Gestational Diabetes, Hemorrhagic Disorders,
Fetal Monitoring, Breastfeeding, Pharmacology, Clinical Judgment, Prioritization,
Delegation, Management of Care & Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of
gestation and is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following
medications should the nurse plan to administer to accelerate fetal
lung maturity?
A. Misoprostol
B. Betamethasone
C. Poractant alfa
D. Methylergonovine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone is an antenatal corticosteroid administered when
preterm birth is anticipated to accelerate fetal lung maturation and reduce
complications associated with prematurity, including respiratory distress
syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal morbidity.
Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening and induction, poractant alfa is a
surfactant given to the newborn after birth, and methylergonovine is a
uterotonic used for postpartum hemorrhage .
Question 2: A nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who
suspects she may be pregnant and asks how the provider will
confirm her pregnancy. Which laboratory test should the nurse
inform the client will be used to confirm pregnancy?
A. Urine test for the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. Urine test for the presence of human chorionic somatomammotropin
(hCS)
C. Blood test for the presence of estrogen
D. Blood test for the amount of circulating progesterone
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Urine test for the presence of human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Rationale: Pregnancy is confirmed by detecting human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by trophoblastic tissue after
implantation. Urine pregnancy tests detect hCG and are commonly used
because they are rapid and noninvasive .
,Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who believes she may be
pregnant. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify
as a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Palpable fetal movement
B. Amenorrhea
C. Chadwick's sign
D. Positive pregnancy test
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Palpable fetal movement
Rationale: Palpable fetal movement by an examiner is a positive sign of
pregnancy because it is direct evidence of a fetus. Amenorrhea, Chadwick's
sign, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or probable signs rather
than definitive positive signs .
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who has oligohydramnios.
Which of the following fetal anomalies should the nurse expect?
A. Renal agenesis
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Spina bifida
D. Hydrocephalus
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Renal agenesis
Rationale: Severe oligohydramnios can result from fetal renal abnormalities
such as bilateral renal agenesis because fetal urine is a major contributor to
amniotic fluid during the second half of pregnancy. Renal abnormalities can
therefore be associated with markedly decreased amniotic fluid volume .
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of
gestation and has a suspected pelvic fracture due to blunt
abdominal trauma. Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A. Uterine contractions
B. Bradycardia
C. Seizures
D. Bradypnea
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Uterine contractions
,Rationale: Significant abdominal trauma during pregnancy can stimulate
uterine activity and may precipitate preterm labor or placental
complications. The nurse should closely monitor maternal and fetal status,
including uterine contractions and fetal heart rate .
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation
who reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the
nurse recommend?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods
C. Consume large meals at bedtime
D. Avoid all fluids until symptoms subside
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the
day
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is best managed by
eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach from becoming empty,
which exacerbates symptoms. Spicy foods may worsen nausea, large
bedtime meals increase discomfort due to slowed digestion, and fluid
avoidance risks dehydration .
Question 7: A client in active labor is dilated to 7 cm. The fetal
heart rate shows late decelerations. Which of the following is the
priority nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to the left side
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Prepare for immediate delivery
D. Increase IV fluid rate
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administer oxygen via face mask
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency
compromising fetal oxygenation. The priority is maximizing oxygen
delivery to the fetus by administering 100% oxygen via non-rebreather
mask at 8-10 L/min. Repositioning is supportive but not the immediate
priority .
Question 8: A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding and
a foul odor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse
suspect?
, A. Endometritis
B. Lochia rubra
C. Retained placenta
D. Urinary tract infection
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Endometritis
Rationale: Heavy bleeding with foul odor suggests endometritis, a uterine
infection requiring antibiotics. Lochia rubra is normal bright red lochia
without odor. Retained placenta causes bleeding but not typically foul odor.
UTI involves urinary symptoms, not vaginal odor .
Question 9: A newborn's Apgar score is 7 at 1 minute. Which of the
following findings contributes to this score?
A. Heart rate of 120 bpm
B. Weak cry and grimace
C. Blue extremities
D. Flexed posture
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart rate of 120 bpm
Rationale: Apgar scoring assesses heart rate (2 points for >100 bpm),
respiration, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. A heart rate of 120
bpm scores 2 points. Weak cry scores 1 for respiration, blue extremities
scores 1 for color, and flexed posture scores 2 for tone .
Question 10: A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a positive urine
protein dipstick. Which of the following is the nurse's next action?
A. Notify the provider immediately
B. Encourage bed rest
C. Collect a 24-hour urine sample
D. Administer antihypertensive medication
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Proteinuria at term suggests preeclampsia, a hypertensive
emergency requiring prompt provider notification for assessment and
management. Bed rest is supportive but not immediate. A 24-hour urine
confirms but delays action. Antihypertensives are prescribed, not nurse-
initiated .
Comprehensive Predictor Exam Prep, ATI Comprehensive Predictor Study Guide, Practice
Tests, Practice Questions & Answers, NCLEX Readiness Review, Maternal-Newborn
Nursing, Pregnancy & Fetal Development, High-Risk Pregnancy, Antepartum Care,
Intrapartum Nursing, Labor & Delivery, Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, Newborn
Complications, Hypertensive Disorders, Gestational Diabetes, Hemorrhagic Disorders,
Fetal Monitoring, Breastfeeding, Pharmacology, Clinical Judgment, Prioritization,
Delegation, Management of Care & Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of
gestation and is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following
medications should the nurse plan to administer to accelerate fetal
lung maturity?
A. Misoprostol
B. Betamethasone
C. Poractant alfa
D. Methylergonovine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone is an antenatal corticosteroid administered when
preterm birth is anticipated to accelerate fetal lung maturation and reduce
complications associated with prematurity, including respiratory distress
syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal morbidity.
Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening and induction, poractant alfa is a
surfactant given to the newborn after birth, and methylergonovine is a
uterotonic used for postpartum hemorrhage .
Question 2: A nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who
suspects she may be pregnant and asks how the provider will
confirm her pregnancy. Which laboratory test should the nurse
inform the client will be used to confirm pregnancy?
A. Urine test for the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. Urine test for the presence of human chorionic somatomammotropin
(hCS)
C. Blood test for the presence of estrogen
D. Blood test for the amount of circulating progesterone
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Urine test for the presence of human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Rationale: Pregnancy is confirmed by detecting human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by trophoblastic tissue after
implantation. Urine pregnancy tests detect hCG and are commonly used
because they are rapid and noninvasive .
,Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who believes she may be
pregnant. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify
as a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Palpable fetal movement
B. Amenorrhea
C. Chadwick's sign
D. Positive pregnancy test
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Palpable fetal movement
Rationale: Palpable fetal movement by an examiner is a positive sign of
pregnancy because it is direct evidence of a fetus. Amenorrhea, Chadwick's
sign, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or probable signs rather
than definitive positive signs .
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who has oligohydramnios.
Which of the following fetal anomalies should the nurse expect?
A. Renal agenesis
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Spina bifida
D. Hydrocephalus
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Renal agenesis
Rationale: Severe oligohydramnios can result from fetal renal abnormalities
such as bilateral renal agenesis because fetal urine is a major contributor to
amniotic fluid during the second half of pregnancy. Renal abnormalities can
therefore be associated with markedly decreased amniotic fluid volume .
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of
gestation and has a suspected pelvic fracture due to blunt
abdominal trauma. Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A. Uterine contractions
B. Bradycardia
C. Seizures
D. Bradypnea
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Uterine contractions
,Rationale: Significant abdominal trauma during pregnancy can stimulate
uterine activity and may precipitate preterm labor or placental
complications. The nurse should closely monitor maternal and fetal status,
including uterine contractions and fetal heart rate .
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation
who reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the
nurse recommend?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods
C. Consume large meals at bedtime
D. Avoid all fluids until symptoms subside
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the
day
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is best managed by
eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach from becoming empty,
which exacerbates symptoms. Spicy foods may worsen nausea, large
bedtime meals increase discomfort due to slowed digestion, and fluid
avoidance risks dehydration .
Question 7: A client in active labor is dilated to 7 cm. The fetal
heart rate shows late decelerations. Which of the following is the
priority nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to the left side
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Prepare for immediate delivery
D. Increase IV fluid rate
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administer oxygen via face mask
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency
compromising fetal oxygenation. The priority is maximizing oxygen
delivery to the fetus by administering 100% oxygen via non-rebreather
mask at 8-10 L/min. Repositioning is supportive but not the immediate
priority .
Question 8: A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding and
a foul odor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse
suspect?
, A. Endometritis
B. Lochia rubra
C. Retained placenta
D. Urinary tract infection
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Endometritis
Rationale: Heavy bleeding with foul odor suggests endometritis, a uterine
infection requiring antibiotics. Lochia rubra is normal bright red lochia
without odor. Retained placenta causes bleeding but not typically foul odor.
UTI involves urinary symptoms, not vaginal odor .
Question 9: A newborn's Apgar score is 7 at 1 minute. Which of the
following findings contributes to this score?
A. Heart rate of 120 bpm
B. Weak cry and grimace
C. Blue extremities
D. Flexed posture
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart rate of 120 bpm
Rationale: Apgar scoring assesses heart rate (2 points for >100 bpm),
respiration, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. A heart rate of 120
bpm scores 2 points. Weak cry scores 1 for respiration, blue extremities
scores 1 for color, and flexed posture scores 2 for tone .
Question 10: A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a positive urine
protein dipstick. Which of the following is the nurse's next action?
A. Notify the provider immediately
B. Encourage bed rest
C. Collect a 24-hour urine sample
D. Administer antihypertensive medication
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Proteinuria at term suggests preeclampsia, a hypertensive
emergency requiring prompt provider notification for assessment and
management. Bed rest is supportive but not immediate. A 24-hour urine
confirms but delays action. Antihypertensives are prescribed, not nurse-
initiated .
