Kaplan FNP Women's Health Practice Exam:
100 OB/GYN Questions with Answers and
Rationales for Certification Review
💊 Contraception & Pharmacologic
Interactions
1. A 28-year-old female presents for
contraception counseling. She has a history of
migraines with aura and smokes one pack per
day. Which contraceptive method is
contraindicated?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Combined oral
contraceptive pill.
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives
containing estrogen are contraindicated in
women with migraines with aura due to a
significantly increased risk of ischemic stroke .
2. Which medication reduces OCP efficacy by
increasing estrogen metabolism?
,☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: St. John's wort.
Rationale: St. John's wort induces CYP3A4,
increasing estrogen clearance and reducing OCP
efficacy .
3. A woman had a levonorgestrel IUD placed 4
weeks ago. She now has cramping and absent
strings. What is the first step?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Bimanual exam and
gentle sounding.
Rationale: The first step is a bimanual exam and
gentle sounding to check for IUD position. If the
IUD is not palpable, ultrasound may be
indicated .
4. A patient with BMI 38 kg/m² requests
contraception. Which method is least affected
by obesity?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Etonogestrel implant.
Rationale: The progestin-only implant contains
,no estrogen, and obesity does not reduce its
efficacy .
5. A 24-year-old wants to start OCPs. Her blood
pressure is 132/84 mm Hg. What is the
appropriate action?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Prescribe OCP with
routine monitoring.
Rationale: This blood pressure is below the
threshold (≥140/90) for withholding combined
hormonal contraception .
Prenatal Care & Antepartum Management
6. A 28-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation
presents for her first prenatal visit. Her blood
type is O negative. Which intervention is most
important at this visit?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Screen for irregular red
blood cell antibodies (indirect Coombs).
Rationale: An indirect Coombs test screens for
, Rh antibodies. If the mother is Rh-negative and
unsensitized, RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours after delivery .
7. A pregnant patient at 24 weeks gestation
has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of
155 mg/dL. What is the next step?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Order a 3-hour 100-
gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Rationale: The 1-hour GCT is a screening test; a
result ≥140–150 mg/dL requires a diagnostic 3-
hour OGTT. Diagnosis of GDM is made based on
two or more elevated values .
8. A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation
presents with new-onset hypertension (150/95
mmHg) and proteinuria. Which diagnosis is
most likely?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Preeclampsia.
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as new-
100 OB/GYN Questions with Answers and
Rationales for Certification Review
💊 Contraception & Pharmacologic
Interactions
1. A 28-year-old female presents for
contraception counseling. She has a history of
migraines with aura and smokes one pack per
day. Which contraceptive method is
contraindicated?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Combined oral
contraceptive pill.
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives
containing estrogen are contraindicated in
women with migraines with aura due to a
significantly increased risk of ischemic stroke .
2. Which medication reduces OCP efficacy by
increasing estrogen metabolism?
,☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: St. John's wort.
Rationale: St. John's wort induces CYP3A4,
increasing estrogen clearance and reducing OCP
efficacy .
3. A woman had a levonorgestrel IUD placed 4
weeks ago. She now has cramping and absent
strings. What is the first step?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Bimanual exam and
gentle sounding.
Rationale: The first step is a bimanual exam and
gentle sounding to check for IUD position. If the
IUD is not palpable, ultrasound may be
indicated .
4. A patient with BMI 38 kg/m² requests
contraception. Which method is least affected
by obesity?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Etonogestrel implant.
Rationale: The progestin-only implant contains
,no estrogen, and obesity does not reduce its
efficacy .
5. A 24-year-old wants to start OCPs. Her blood
pressure is 132/84 mm Hg. What is the
appropriate action?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Prescribe OCP with
routine monitoring.
Rationale: This blood pressure is below the
threshold (≥140/90) for withholding combined
hormonal contraception .
Prenatal Care & Antepartum Management
6. A 28-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation
presents for her first prenatal visit. Her blood
type is O negative. Which intervention is most
important at this visit?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Screen for irregular red
blood cell antibodies (indirect Coombs).
Rationale: An indirect Coombs test screens for
, Rh antibodies. If the mother is Rh-negative and
unsensitized, RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours after delivery .
7. A pregnant patient at 24 weeks gestation
has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of
155 mg/dL. What is the next step?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Order a 3-hour 100-
gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Rationale: The 1-hour GCT is a screening test; a
result ≥140–150 mg/dL requires a diagnostic 3-
hour OGTT. Diagnosis of GDM is made based on
two or more elevated values .
8. A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation
presents with new-onset hypertension (150/95
mmHg) and proteinuria. Which diagnosis is
most likely?
☑VERIFIED ANSWERS: Preeclampsia.
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as new-
