ATI RN Pharmacology 2026: 100 Practice
Questions With Rationales for NGN Exam
Preparation
20 Additional Sample Questions with
Rationales
Question 11: Antibiotics
A nurse is administering IV vancomycin to a
client. The client develops flushing of the
face, neck, and upper chest along with
pruritus during the infusion. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the infusion immediately
B. Slow the infusion rate and notify the
provider
,C. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered
D. Document the finding and continue the
infusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms describe
vancomycin infusion reaction (formerly
called "red man syndrome"), which is
caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. It is
not a true allergic reaction. The priority
action is to slow the infusion rate, which
usually resolves the symptoms. The
provider should be notified. Stopping the
infusion entirely may not be necessary
unless symptoms worsen. Diphenhydramine
may be given for symptom management but
is not the first action. Continuing at the
current rate could worsen the reaction.
,Question 12: Anticoagulants
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving
a continuous IV heparin infusion. The
client's aPTT is 95 seconds (therapeutic
range: 60–80 seconds). Which action should
the nurse anticipate?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate
B. Stop the heparin infusion and administer
protamine sulfate
C. Hold the heparin infusion and notify the
provider
D. Continue the infusion at the current rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An aPTT of 95 seconds is above
the therapeutic range, indicating an
, increased risk of bleeding. The nurse should
hold the infusion and notify the provider,
who may adjust the rate or order protamine
sulfate if bleeding occurs. Increasing the
rate would worsen the coagulopathy.
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for
heparin but is typically reserved for serious
bleeding, not just an elevated aPTT.
Continuing the infusion at the current rate
places the client at risk for hemorrhage.
Question 13: Psychotropic Medications
A client who has been taking lithium for
bipolar disorder reports to the clinic with
tremors, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which
finding should the nurse prioritize?
Questions With Rationales for NGN Exam
Preparation
20 Additional Sample Questions with
Rationales
Question 11: Antibiotics
A nurse is administering IV vancomycin to a
client. The client develops flushing of the
face, neck, and upper chest along with
pruritus during the infusion. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the infusion immediately
B. Slow the infusion rate and notify the
provider
,C. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered
D. Document the finding and continue the
infusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms describe
vancomycin infusion reaction (formerly
called "red man syndrome"), which is
caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. It is
not a true allergic reaction. The priority
action is to slow the infusion rate, which
usually resolves the symptoms. The
provider should be notified. Stopping the
infusion entirely may not be necessary
unless symptoms worsen. Diphenhydramine
may be given for symptom management but
is not the first action. Continuing at the
current rate could worsen the reaction.
,Question 12: Anticoagulants
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving
a continuous IV heparin infusion. The
client's aPTT is 95 seconds (therapeutic
range: 60–80 seconds). Which action should
the nurse anticipate?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate
B. Stop the heparin infusion and administer
protamine sulfate
C. Hold the heparin infusion and notify the
provider
D. Continue the infusion at the current rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An aPTT of 95 seconds is above
the therapeutic range, indicating an
, increased risk of bleeding. The nurse should
hold the infusion and notify the provider,
who may adjust the rate or order protamine
sulfate if bleeding occurs. Increasing the
rate would worsen the coagulopathy.
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for
heparin but is typically reserved for serious
bleeding, not just an elevated aPTT.
Continuing the infusion at the current rate
places the client at risk for hemorrhage.
Question 13: Psychotropic Medications
A client who has been taking lithium for
bipolar disorder reports to the clinic with
tremors, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which
finding should the nurse prioritize?
