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NSG 552 Exam 4 V1 | NSG 552 Psychopharmacology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (NSG 552 Exam 4) | Wilkes

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NSG 552 Exam 4 V1 | NSG 552 Psychopharmacology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (NSG 552 Exam 4) | Wilkes

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NSG 552 Exam 4 V1 | NSG 552
Psychopharmacology | Actual Q&A with Rationale
(NSG 552 Exam 4) | Wilkes
1. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for Methylphenidate in the

treatment of ADHD?

A. It blocks the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine by inhibiting their transporters.


B. It causes the release of dopamine directly from the presynaptic vesicles.


C. It acts as a potent agonist at the Alpha-2A adrenergic receptor.


D. It inhibits Monoamine Oxidase Type B to increase synaptic catecholamines.


Correct Answer: A


Explanation: Methylphenidate works by binding to and blocking the dopamine

transporter (DAT) and norepinephrine transporter (NET). Unlike amphetamines, it does

not promote the release of stored dopamine but rather prevents its clearance from the

synapse. This mechanism helps to increase the tonic levels of these neurotransmitters in

the prefrontal cortex.


2. A patient with Alcohol Use Disorder is prescribed Acamprosate. Which laboratory value is

most critical to monitor for this patient?

A. Liver Function Tests (ALT/AST)


B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

,C. Complete Blood Count (CBC)


D. Serum Creatinine and GFR


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: Acamprosate is primarily excreted unchanged by the kidneys and is

contraindicated in patients with severe renal impairment (CrCl < 30 mL/min). A dose

adjustment is required for patients with moderate renal impairment. Unlike Naltrexone or

Disulfiram, it does not undergo significant hepatic metabolism.


3. Which non-stimulant medication for ADHD is classified as a selective norepinephrine

reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)?

A. Guanfacine


B. Atomoxetine


C. Clonidine


D. Modafinil


Correct Answer: B


Explanation: Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant that specifically inhibits the reuptake of

norepinephrine. It has no significant affinity for other noradrenergic receptors or other

neurotransmitter transporters. It is considered a second-line treatment for ADHD,

especially when there is a concern for stimulant abuse.

, 4. What is the primary mechanism by which Varenicline assists in smoking cessation?

A. Full antagonism of the Alpha-4 Beta-2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.


B. Irreversible inhibition of monoamine oxidase.


C. Inhibition of the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine.


D. Partial agonism of the Alpha-4 Beta-2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: Varenicline acts as a partial agonist at the Alpha-4 Beta-2 nicotinic

acetylcholine receptors, providing a lower level of dopamine release than nicotine. This

helps reduce withdrawal symptoms while simultaneously blocking the reinforcing effects

of nicotine if the patient smokes. It is highly effective but requires monitoring for

neuropsychiatric side effects.


5. Lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse) is unique among stimulants because it:

A. Does not cause cardiovascular side effects like tachycardia.


B. Crosses the blood-brain barrier faster than other amphetamines.


C. Is not a controlled substance due to its low abuse potential.


D. Is a prodrug that requires enzymatic conversion in the blood.


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: Lisdexamfetamine is a prodrug where d-amphetamine is covalently bonded

to the amino acid l-lysine. It remains inactive until the lysine is cleaved off by enzymes in

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