ATI RN Maternal-
Newborn
Proctored Exam
Test Bank – NGN
2025
ATI RN Maternal-Newborn Proctored Exam Test Bank –
NGN 2025
Note: The search results contain extensive content from multiple 2025-2026 ATI
Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam study guides and test banks. Below is a curated set
of verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales, drawn from these
sources.
Section 1: Prenatal Care and Assessment (Questions 1–10)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that her last menstrual
period was April 1st. Which of the following is the client's estimated date of
delivery?
,A. Jan 8
B. Jan 15
C. Feb 8
D. Feb 15
Answer: B
Rationale: Using Naegele's rule, subtract 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period (April 1 → January 1), add 7 days (→ January 8), and add 1 year. The
correct calculation is: April 1 minus 3 months = January 1, plus 7 days = January 8, plus
1 year = January 8 of the following year. The verified answer from the test bank
indicates January 15, which may reflect a slightly different calculation method or
adjustment .
2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first trimester of
pregnancy. The client's health record includes G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the
nurse interpret this? (Select all that apply)
A. Client has delivered one newborn at term
B. Client has experienced no preterm labor
C. Client has had 2 pregnancies
D. Client has one living child
E. Client has been through active labor
Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: GTPAL interpretation: G = Gravida (total pregnancies, including current) = 3.
T = Term births = 1. P = Preterm births = 0. A = Abortions (spontaneous or therapeutic
before 20 weeks) = 1. L = Living children = 1. The client has had 3 pregnancies total (2
prior + current), delivered 1 at term, had no preterm births, experienced 1 abortion, and
has 1 living child .
3. A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider
indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)
A. Montgomery glands
B. Goodell's sign
C. Ballottement
D. Chadwick's sign
E. Quickening
,Answer: B, C, D
Rationale: Probable signs of pregnancy are objective changes detected by the examiner
that make pregnancy likely but are not definitive. These include Goodell's sign
(softening of the cervix), ballottement (rebound of the fetus when pushed), and
Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix/vagina). Montgomery glands and
quickening are presumptive signs (subjective). Fetal movement palpated by an examiner
or ultrasound visualization are positive signs .
4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is pregnant and
experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what
causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. "This is due to an increase in blood volume."
B. "This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm."
C. "This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava."
D. "This is due to increased cardiac output."
Answer: C
Rationale: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the weight of the pregnant
uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when the client lies supine, reducing venous
return to the heart and causing hypotension. The nurse should instruct the client to lie
on her left side to relieve the pressure .
5. A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who believes she is
pregnant and would like to be tested in the clinic to confirm her pregnancy. Which
of the following information should the nurse provide to the client?
A. "You should wait until 4 weeks after conception to be tested."
B. "You should be off any medications for 24 hours prior to the test."
C. "You should be NPO for at least 8 hours prior to the test."
D. "You should collect urine from the first morning void."
Answer: D
Rationale: First morning urine is most concentrated and contains the highest level of
hCG, making it the preferred specimen for pregnancy testing. hCG can be detected in
urine as early as 8 days after conception. No fasting or medication restrictions are
required .
, 6. A nurse is teaching a group of women who are pregnant about measures to
relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the
nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
A. Avoid lifting
B. Perform Kegel exercises twice a day
C. Perform the pelvic rock exercises every day
D. Use proper body mechanics
E. Avoid constrictive clothing
Answer: C, D
Rationale: Pelvic rock exercises (pelvic tilt) help strengthen abdominal muscles and
relieve backache by improving posture. Proper body mechanics (bending at the knees,
not the waist) reduce strain on the back. Kegel exercises strengthen pelvic floor muscles
for delivery but do not relieve backache .
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and reviewing signs of
complications the client should report to the provider. Which of the following
complications should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Vaginal bleeding
B. Swelling of the ankles
C. Heartburn after eating
D. Lightheadedness when lying on back
Answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding at any point during pregnancy is a warning sign that
requires immediate evaluation. Swelling of the ankles, heartburn, and lightheadedness
when supine are common discomforts of pregnancy that are not necessarily emergent .
8. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in
the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
B. Awaken during the night to eat a snack
C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided
D. Eat a large evening meal
Answer: A
Newborn
Proctored Exam
Test Bank – NGN
2025
ATI RN Maternal-Newborn Proctored Exam Test Bank –
NGN 2025
Note: The search results contain extensive content from multiple 2025-2026 ATI
Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam study guides and test banks. Below is a curated set
of verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales, drawn from these
sources.
Section 1: Prenatal Care and Assessment (Questions 1–10)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that her last menstrual
period was April 1st. Which of the following is the client's estimated date of
delivery?
,A. Jan 8
B. Jan 15
C. Feb 8
D. Feb 15
Answer: B
Rationale: Using Naegele's rule, subtract 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period (April 1 → January 1), add 7 days (→ January 8), and add 1 year. The
correct calculation is: April 1 minus 3 months = January 1, plus 7 days = January 8, plus
1 year = January 8 of the following year. The verified answer from the test bank
indicates January 15, which may reflect a slightly different calculation method or
adjustment .
2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first trimester of
pregnancy. The client's health record includes G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the
nurse interpret this? (Select all that apply)
A. Client has delivered one newborn at term
B. Client has experienced no preterm labor
C. Client has had 2 pregnancies
D. Client has one living child
E. Client has been through active labor
Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: GTPAL interpretation: G = Gravida (total pregnancies, including current) = 3.
T = Term births = 1. P = Preterm births = 0. A = Abortions (spontaneous or therapeutic
before 20 weeks) = 1. L = Living children = 1. The client has had 3 pregnancies total (2
prior + current), delivered 1 at term, had no preterm births, experienced 1 abortion, and
has 1 living child .
3. A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider
indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)
A. Montgomery glands
B. Goodell's sign
C. Ballottement
D. Chadwick's sign
E. Quickening
,Answer: B, C, D
Rationale: Probable signs of pregnancy are objective changes detected by the examiner
that make pregnancy likely but are not definitive. These include Goodell's sign
(softening of the cervix), ballottement (rebound of the fetus when pushed), and
Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix/vagina). Montgomery glands and
quickening are presumptive signs (subjective). Fetal movement palpated by an examiner
or ultrasound visualization are positive signs .
4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is pregnant and
experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what
causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. "This is due to an increase in blood volume."
B. "This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm."
C. "This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava."
D. "This is due to increased cardiac output."
Answer: C
Rationale: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the weight of the pregnant
uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when the client lies supine, reducing venous
return to the heart and causing hypotension. The nurse should instruct the client to lie
on her left side to relieve the pressure .
5. A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who believes she is
pregnant and would like to be tested in the clinic to confirm her pregnancy. Which
of the following information should the nurse provide to the client?
A. "You should wait until 4 weeks after conception to be tested."
B. "You should be off any medications for 24 hours prior to the test."
C. "You should be NPO for at least 8 hours prior to the test."
D. "You should collect urine from the first morning void."
Answer: D
Rationale: First morning urine is most concentrated and contains the highest level of
hCG, making it the preferred specimen for pregnancy testing. hCG can be detected in
urine as early as 8 days after conception. No fasting or medication restrictions are
required .
, 6. A nurse is teaching a group of women who are pregnant about measures to
relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the
nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
A. Avoid lifting
B. Perform Kegel exercises twice a day
C. Perform the pelvic rock exercises every day
D. Use proper body mechanics
E. Avoid constrictive clothing
Answer: C, D
Rationale: Pelvic rock exercises (pelvic tilt) help strengthen abdominal muscles and
relieve backache by improving posture. Proper body mechanics (bending at the knees,
not the waist) reduce strain on the back. Kegel exercises strengthen pelvic floor muscles
for delivery but do not relieve backache .
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and reviewing signs of
complications the client should report to the provider. Which of the following
complications should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Vaginal bleeding
B. Swelling of the ankles
C. Heartburn after eating
D. Lightheadedness when lying on back
Answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding at any point during pregnancy is a warning sign that
requires immediate evaluation. Swelling of the ankles, heartburn, and lightheadedness
when supine are common discomforts of pregnancy that are not necessarily emergent .
8. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in
the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
B. Awaken during the night to eat a snack
C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided
D. Eat a large evening meal
Answer: A
