ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2026 Actual
and Retake Proctored Exam Package
All Versions
1. A client is pregnant for the 4th time. She has 2 term births, 1 preterm birth,
0 abortions, and 3 living children. Which GTPAL is correct?
• A. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3
• B. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3
• C. G3 T2 P1 A0 L3
• D. G4 T1 P2 A0 L3
• Correct: B
• Rationale: GTPAL: G = total pregnancies, T = term, P = preterm, A =
abortions, L = living. This client is G4 T2 P1 A0 L3.
2. A client’s last menstrual period was May 10. Using Naegele’s rule, what is
the estimated date of birth?
• A. February 10
• B. February 17
• C. March 17
• D. January 17
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Add 7 days to May 10 = May 17; subtract 3 months =
February 17; add 1 year.
3. Which supplement is recommended before and during early pregnancy to
prevent neural tube defects?
,• A. Iron 65 mg
• B. Folic acid 400 mcg
• C. Calcium 1200 mg
• D. Vitamin C 500 mg
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Folic acid 400 mcg daily is recommended to reduce neural
tube defects.
4. At 20 weeks’ gestation, where should the fundus be palpated?
• A. At the symphysis pubis
• B. At the umbilicus
• C. At the xiphoid process
• D. Midway between symphysis and umbilicus
• Correct: B
• Rationale: At 20 weeks, the fundus is typically at the level of the
umbilicus.
5. When does a primigravida usually first feel fetal movement?
• A. 6–8 weeks
• B. 10–12 weeks
• C. 16–20 weeks
• D. 24–28 weeks
• Correct: C
• Rationale: Quickening is usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks.
6. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein is best drawn at which gestational age?
,• A. 8–10 weeks
• B. 15–20 weeks
• C. 24–28 weeks
• D. 32–36 weeks
• Correct: B
• Rationale: AFP screening is typically performed between 15 and 20
weeks.
7. When is RhoGAM routinely given to an Rh-negative unsensitized pregnant
client?
• A. 8 weeks
• B. 20 weeks
• C. 28 weeks
• D. 36 weeks
• Correct: C
• Rationale: RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours
postpartum if the newborn is Rh positive.
8. Group B streptococcus screening is usually performed at which gestation?
• A. 12–16 weeks
• B. 20–24 weeks
• C. 28–32 weeks
• D. 36–37 weeks
• Correct: D
• Rationale: GBS screening is done at 36–37 weeks.
, 9. Which schedule describes routine prenatal visits for an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
• A. Every 2 weeks until 28 weeks, then weekly
• B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
• C. Every 6 weeks until 30 weeks, then monthly
• D. Weekly from the first visit
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Standard schedule: every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2
weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly.
10.Physiologic anemia of pregnancy is primarily caused by:
• A. Decreased iron absorption
• B. Increased plasma volume
• C. Decreased RBC production
• D. Blood loss
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Plasma volume increases more than RBC mass, diluting
hemoglobin.
11.Which instruction helps relieve morning sickness?
• A. Drink large amounts of water with meals
• B. Eat dry crackers before rising
• C. Skip breakfast
• D. Eat spicy foods
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Dry crackers before rising can reduce nausea.
and Retake Proctored Exam Package
All Versions
1. A client is pregnant for the 4th time. She has 2 term births, 1 preterm birth,
0 abortions, and 3 living children. Which GTPAL is correct?
• A. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3
• B. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3
• C. G3 T2 P1 A0 L3
• D. G4 T1 P2 A0 L3
• Correct: B
• Rationale: GTPAL: G = total pregnancies, T = term, P = preterm, A =
abortions, L = living. This client is G4 T2 P1 A0 L3.
2. A client’s last menstrual period was May 10. Using Naegele’s rule, what is
the estimated date of birth?
• A. February 10
• B. February 17
• C. March 17
• D. January 17
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Add 7 days to May 10 = May 17; subtract 3 months =
February 17; add 1 year.
3. Which supplement is recommended before and during early pregnancy to
prevent neural tube defects?
,• A. Iron 65 mg
• B. Folic acid 400 mcg
• C. Calcium 1200 mg
• D. Vitamin C 500 mg
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Folic acid 400 mcg daily is recommended to reduce neural
tube defects.
4. At 20 weeks’ gestation, where should the fundus be palpated?
• A. At the symphysis pubis
• B. At the umbilicus
• C. At the xiphoid process
• D. Midway between symphysis and umbilicus
• Correct: B
• Rationale: At 20 weeks, the fundus is typically at the level of the
umbilicus.
5. When does a primigravida usually first feel fetal movement?
• A. 6–8 weeks
• B. 10–12 weeks
• C. 16–20 weeks
• D. 24–28 weeks
• Correct: C
• Rationale: Quickening is usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks.
6. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein is best drawn at which gestational age?
,• A. 8–10 weeks
• B. 15–20 weeks
• C. 24–28 weeks
• D. 32–36 weeks
• Correct: B
• Rationale: AFP screening is typically performed between 15 and 20
weeks.
7. When is RhoGAM routinely given to an Rh-negative unsensitized pregnant
client?
• A. 8 weeks
• B. 20 weeks
• C. 28 weeks
• D. 36 weeks
• Correct: C
• Rationale: RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours
postpartum if the newborn is Rh positive.
8. Group B streptococcus screening is usually performed at which gestation?
• A. 12–16 weeks
• B. 20–24 weeks
• C. 28–32 weeks
• D. 36–37 weeks
• Correct: D
• Rationale: GBS screening is done at 36–37 weeks.
, 9. Which schedule describes routine prenatal visits for an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
• A. Every 2 weeks until 28 weeks, then weekly
• B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
• C. Every 6 weeks until 30 weeks, then monthly
• D. Weekly from the first visit
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Standard schedule: every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2
weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly.
10.Physiologic anemia of pregnancy is primarily caused by:
• A. Decreased iron absorption
• B. Increased plasma volume
• C. Decreased RBC production
• D. Blood loss
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Plasma volume increases more than RBC mass, diluting
hemoglobin.
11.Which instruction helps relieve morning sickness?
• A. Drink large amounts of water with meals
• B. Eat dry crackers before rising
• C. Skip breakfast
• D. Eat spicy foods
• Correct: B
• Rationale: Dry crackers before rising can reduce nausea.
