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NBRC EXAM 2026/2027 | RESPIRATORY THERAPY |
100 VERIFIED Q&A | DETAILED RATIONALES |
PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: PATIENT ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING – Questions 1-10
Q1: Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation
A 65-year-old patient with COPD presents with the following ABG: pH 7.36, PaCO2 65 mmHg,
HCO3 36 mEq/L, PaO2 58 mmHg. How should the respiratory therapist interpret this?
A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pH is normal (7.36), PaCO2 is elevated (65 > 45), indicating respiratory acidosis.
The HCO3 is elevated (36 > 26), indicating metabolic compensation. Since the pH is normal, this
is fully compensated respiratory acidosis. Partially compensated (B) would have an abnormal
pH. Uncompensated (A) would have normal HCO3. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis (D)
would have elevated pH and HCO3. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Oximetry Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with a SpO2 of 85%. According to the
oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, what is the approximate PaO2?
A. 40 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
C. 60 mmHg
D. 70 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: According to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, a SpO2 of 85% corresponds to a
PaO2 of approximately 50 mmHg. A PaO2 of 40 mmHg (A) corresponds to a SpO2 of
approximately 75%. A PaO2 of 60 mmHg (C) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 90%. A
PaO2 of 70 mmHg (D) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 93%. [100% CORRECT]
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Q3: Chest X-Ray Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is reviewing a chest X-ray of a patient with a suspected pleural effusion.
Which of the following findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Increased lung markings
B. Blunting of the costophrenic angle
C. Absent lung markings with a visceral pleural line
D. Cardiomegaly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pleural effusion is characterized by blunting of the costophrenic angle on chest X-
ray. Increased lung markings (A) would suggest consolidation. Absent lung markings with a
visceral pleural line (C) would suggest pneumothorax. Cardiomegaly (D) would show an enlarged
cardiac silhouette. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Patient History - Smoking Cessation
A respiratory therapist is obtaining a patient history. Which of the following questions is most
important for assessing smoking cessation readiness?
A. "Do you smoke?"
B. "How many packs per day do you smoke?"
C. "Are you interested in quitting smoking?"
D. "Does anyone in your family smoke?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important question for assessing smoking cessation readiness is whether
the patient is interested in quitting. "Do you smoke?" (A) assesses current smoking status. "How
many packs per day do you smoke?" (B) quantifies smoking exposure. "Does anyone in your
family smoke?" (D) assesses secondhand smoke exposure. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Physical Examination - Breath Sounds
A respiratory therapist is auscultating a patient's chest and hears high-pitched, continuous
sounds during expiration. What are these breath sounds called?
A. Crackles
B. Wheezes
C. Rhonchi
D. Pleural friction rub
Correct Answer: B
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Rationale: Wheezes are high-pitched, continuous sounds heard during expiration, indicating
narrowing of the airways. Crackles (A) are discontinuous sounds heard during inspiration.
Rhonchi (C) are low-pitched, continuous sounds. Pleural friction rub (D) is a grating sound heard
during both inspiration and expiration. [100% CORRECT]
Q6: Vital Signs Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is assessing a patient with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min, heart
rate of 130 beats/min, and blood pressure of 85/50 mmHg. How should these vital signs be
interpreted?
A. Normal
B. Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypotension
C. Bradypnea, bradycardia, and hypertension
D. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 30 is elevated (tachypnea), heart rate of 130 is elevated
(tachycardia), and blood pressure of 85/50 is low (hypotension). Normal (A) is incorrect.
Bradypnea, bradycardia, and hypertension (C) would be decreased respiratory rate, decreased
heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension (D) would be
elevated respiratory rate, decreased heart rate, and low blood pressure. [100% CORRECT]
Q7: Pulse Oximetry Limitations
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with severe anemia. The SpO2 reads 97%. How
should this be interpreted?
A. Normal oxygenation
B. Falsely elevated SpO2
C. Falsely decreased SpO2
D. Accurate SpO2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen, not
the total oxygen content. In severe anemia, the SpO2 may be normal despite decreased oxygen
delivery. Normal oxygenation (A) is correct in terms of saturation. Falsely elevated (B) and
falsely decreased (C) are incorrect. Accurate SpO2 (D) is correct but does not reflect oxygen
content. [100% CORRECT]
Q8: Capnography Interpretation
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A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with capnography. The EtCO2 is 20 mmHg. What
is the most likely cause?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Normal finding
D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A low EtCO2 (20 mmHg) indicates hyperventilation, which causes excessive
elimination of CO2. Hypoventilation (B) would cause an elevated EtCO2. Normal finding (C)
would be 35-45 mmHg. Respiratory acidosis (D) would be associated with hypoventilation and
elevated EtCO2. [100% CORRECT]
Q9: Chest Assessment - Tactile Fremitus
A respiratory therapist is assessing tactile fremitus. Which of the following conditions would
cause increased tactile fremitus?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Consolidation
D. COPD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Consolidation increases tactile fremitus because solid tissue transmits sound better
than air. Pneumothorax (A) and pleural effusion (B) would decrease tactile fremitus. COPD (D)
may decrease tactile fremitus due to hyperinflation. [100% CORRECT]
Q10: Sputum Assessment
A respiratory therapist is evaluating a patient's sputum. Which of the following characteristics is
most consistent with pulmonary edema?
A. Clear, watery sputum
B. White, frothy sputum
C. Yellow-green, thick sputum
D. Pink, frothy sputum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum is characteristic of pulmonary edema. Clear, watery sputum (A) is
normal. White, frothy sputum (B) may be seen in COPD. Yellow-green, thick sputum (C) is
consistent with bacterial infection. [100% CORRECT]
NBRC EXAM 2026/2027 | RESPIRATORY THERAPY |
100 VERIFIED Q&A | DETAILED RATIONALES |
PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: PATIENT ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING – Questions 1-10
Q1: Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation
A 65-year-old patient with COPD presents with the following ABG: pH 7.36, PaCO2 65 mmHg,
HCO3 36 mEq/L, PaO2 58 mmHg. How should the respiratory therapist interpret this?
A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pH is normal (7.36), PaCO2 is elevated (65 > 45), indicating respiratory acidosis.
The HCO3 is elevated (36 > 26), indicating metabolic compensation. Since the pH is normal, this
is fully compensated respiratory acidosis. Partially compensated (B) would have an abnormal
pH. Uncompensated (A) would have normal HCO3. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis (D)
would have elevated pH and HCO3. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Oximetry Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with a SpO2 of 85%. According to the
oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, what is the approximate PaO2?
A. 40 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
C. 60 mmHg
D. 70 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: According to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, a SpO2 of 85% corresponds to a
PaO2 of approximately 50 mmHg. A PaO2 of 40 mmHg (A) corresponds to a SpO2 of
approximately 75%. A PaO2 of 60 mmHg (C) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 90%. A
PaO2 of 70 mmHg (D) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 93%. [100% CORRECT]
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Q3: Chest X-Ray Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is reviewing a chest X-ray of a patient with a suspected pleural effusion.
Which of the following findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Increased lung markings
B. Blunting of the costophrenic angle
C. Absent lung markings with a visceral pleural line
D. Cardiomegaly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pleural effusion is characterized by blunting of the costophrenic angle on chest X-
ray. Increased lung markings (A) would suggest consolidation. Absent lung markings with a
visceral pleural line (C) would suggest pneumothorax. Cardiomegaly (D) would show an enlarged
cardiac silhouette. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Patient History - Smoking Cessation
A respiratory therapist is obtaining a patient history. Which of the following questions is most
important for assessing smoking cessation readiness?
A. "Do you smoke?"
B. "How many packs per day do you smoke?"
C. "Are you interested in quitting smoking?"
D. "Does anyone in your family smoke?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important question for assessing smoking cessation readiness is whether
the patient is interested in quitting. "Do you smoke?" (A) assesses current smoking status. "How
many packs per day do you smoke?" (B) quantifies smoking exposure. "Does anyone in your
family smoke?" (D) assesses secondhand smoke exposure. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Physical Examination - Breath Sounds
A respiratory therapist is auscultating a patient's chest and hears high-pitched, continuous
sounds during expiration. What are these breath sounds called?
A. Crackles
B. Wheezes
C. Rhonchi
D. Pleural friction rub
Correct Answer: B
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Rationale: Wheezes are high-pitched, continuous sounds heard during expiration, indicating
narrowing of the airways. Crackles (A) are discontinuous sounds heard during inspiration.
Rhonchi (C) are low-pitched, continuous sounds. Pleural friction rub (D) is a grating sound heard
during both inspiration and expiration. [100% CORRECT]
Q6: Vital Signs Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is assessing a patient with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min, heart
rate of 130 beats/min, and blood pressure of 85/50 mmHg. How should these vital signs be
interpreted?
A. Normal
B. Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypotension
C. Bradypnea, bradycardia, and hypertension
D. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 30 is elevated (tachypnea), heart rate of 130 is elevated
(tachycardia), and blood pressure of 85/50 is low (hypotension). Normal (A) is incorrect.
Bradypnea, bradycardia, and hypertension (C) would be decreased respiratory rate, decreased
heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension (D) would be
elevated respiratory rate, decreased heart rate, and low blood pressure. [100% CORRECT]
Q7: Pulse Oximetry Limitations
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with severe anemia. The SpO2 reads 97%. How
should this be interpreted?
A. Normal oxygenation
B. Falsely elevated SpO2
C. Falsely decreased SpO2
D. Accurate SpO2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen, not
the total oxygen content. In severe anemia, the SpO2 may be normal despite decreased oxygen
delivery. Normal oxygenation (A) is correct in terms of saturation. Falsely elevated (B) and
falsely decreased (C) are incorrect. Accurate SpO2 (D) is correct but does not reflect oxygen
content. [100% CORRECT]
Q8: Capnography Interpretation
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A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with capnography. The EtCO2 is 20 mmHg. What
is the most likely cause?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Normal finding
D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A low EtCO2 (20 mmHg) indicates hyperventilation, which causes excessive
elimination of CO2. Hypoventilation (B) would cause an elevated EtCO2. Normal finding (C)
would be 35-45 mmHg. Respiratory acidosis (D) would be associated with hypoventilation and
elevated EtCO2. [100% CORRECT]
Q9: Chest Assessment - Tactile Fremitus
A respiratory therapist is assessing tactile fremitus. Which of the following conditions would
cause increased tactile fremitus?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Consolidation
D. COPD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Consolidation increases tactile fremitus because solid tissue transmits sound better
than air. Pneumothorax (A) and pleural effusion (B) would decrease tactile fremitus. COPD (D)
may decrease tactile fremitus due to hyperinflation. [100% CORRECT]
Q10: Sputum Assessment
A respiratory therapist is evaluating a patient's sputum. Which of the following characteristics is
most consistent with pulmonary edema?
A. Clear, watery sputum
B. White, frothy sputum
C. Yellow-green, thick sputum
D. Pink, frothy sputum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum is characteristic of pulmonary edema. Clear, watery sputum (A) is
normal. White, frothy sputum (B) may be seen in COPD. Yellow-green, thick sputum (C) is
consistent with bacterial infection. [100% CORRECT]
