1
NBRC TMC EXAM 2026/2027 |
RESPIRATORY THERAPY | 100 VERIFIED
Q&A | DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS
GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: PATIENT ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING – Questions 1-10
Q1: Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation
A 60-year-old patient with renal failure presents with the following ABG: pH 7.28, PaCO2 34 mmHg,
HCO3 16 mEq/L, PaO2 88 mmHg. How should the respiratory therapist interpret this?
A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
B. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
C. Fully compensated metabolic acidosis
D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The pH is acidotic (7.28 < 7.35), HCO3 is low (16 < 22), indicating metabolic acidosis. The
PaCO2 is low (34 < 35), indicating respiratory compensation. Since the pH is still abnormal, this is
partially compensated metabolic acidosis. Fully compensated (C) would have a normal pH.
Uncompensated (A) would have a normal PaCO2. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (D) would
have an elevated pH. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Oximetry Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with a SpO2 of 75%. According to the oxyhemoglobin
dissociation curve, what is the approximate PaO2?
A. 40 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
C. 60 mmHg
D. 70 mmHg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, a SpO2 of 75% corresponds to a PaO2
of approximately 40 mmHg. A PaO2 of 50 mmHg (B) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 85%. A
PaO2 of 60 mmHg (C) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 90%. A PaO2 of 70 mmHg (D)
corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 93%. [100% CORRECT]
Q3: Chest X-Ray Interpretation
,2
A respiratory therapist is reviewing a chest X-ray of a patient with a suspected consolidation. Which
of the following findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Increased lung markings
B. Blunting of the costophrenic angle
C. Absent lung markings with a visceral pleural line
D. Cardiomegaly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Consolidation is characterized by increased lung markings (opacities) on chest X-ray.
Blunting of the costophrenic angle (B) would suggest pleural effusion. Absent lung markings with a
visceral pleural line (C) would suggest pneumothorax. Cardiomegaly (D) would show an enlarged
cardiac silhouette. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Patient History - Medication Reconciliation
A respiratory therapist is obtaining a patient history. Which of the following questions is most
important for medication reconciliation?
A. "Do you take any medications?"
B. "What medications do you take, including dosages and frequencies?"
C. "Have you ever had an allergic reaction?"
D. "Do you use any recreational drugs?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important question for medication reconciliation is a detailed list of
medications, including dosages and frequencies. "Do you take any medications?" (A) is too vague.
"Have you ever had an allergic reaction?" (C) assesses allergies, not current medications. "Do you
use any recreational drugs?" (D) assesses substance use, not medications. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Physical Examination - Breath Sounds
A respiratory therapist is auscultating a patient's chest and hears discontinuous, popping sounds
during inspiration. What are these breath sounds called?
A. Crackles
B. Wheezes
C. Rhonchi
D. Pleural friction rub
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crackles are discontinuous, popping sounds heard during inspiration, indicating fluid or
secretions in the small airways. Wheezes (B) are high-pitched, continuous sounds. Rhonchi (C) are
low-pitched, continuous sounds. Pleural friction rub (D) is a grating sound heard during both
inspiration and expiration. [100% CORRECT]
,3
Q6: Vital Signs Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is assessing a patient with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, heart rate of
120 beats/min, and blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg. How should these vital signs be interpreted?
A. Normal
B. Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypotension
C. Bradypnea, bradycardia, and hypertension
D. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 24 is elevated (tachypnea), heart rate of 120 is elevated
(tachycardia), and blood pressure of 90/50 is low (hypotension). Normal (A) is incorrect. Bradypnea,
bradycardia, and hypertension (C) would be decreased respiratory rate, decreased heart rate, and
elevated blood pressure. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension (D) would be elevated
respiratory rate, decreased heart rate, and low blood pressure. [100% CORRECT]
Q7: Pulse Oximetry Limitations
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with severe anemia. The SpO2 reads 98%. How should
this be interpreted?
A. Normal oxygenation
B. Falsely elevated SpO2
C. Falsely decreased SpO2
D. Accurate SpO2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen, not the
total oxygen content. In severe anemia, the SpO2 may be normal despite decreased oxygen delivery.
Normal oxygenation (A) is correct in terms of saturation. Falsely elevated (B) and falsely decreased
(C) are incorrect. Accurate SpO2 (D) is correct but does not reflect oxygen content. [100% CORRECT]
Q8: Capnography Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with capnography. The EtCO2 is 30 mmHg. What is
the most likely cause?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Normal finding
D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A low EtCO2 (30 mmHg) indicates hyperventilation, which causes excessive elimination of
CO2. Hypoventilation (B) would cause an elevated EtCO2. Normal finding (C) would be 35-45 mmHg.
Respiratory acidosis (D) would be associated with hypoventilation and elevated EtCO2. [100%
CORRECT]
, 4
Q9: Chest Assessment - Tactile Fremitus
A respiratory therapist is assessing tactile fremitus. Which of the following conditions would cause
increased tactile fremitus?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Consolidation
D. COPD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Consolidation increases tactile fremitus because solid tissue transmits sound better than
air. Pneumothorax (A) and pleural effusion (B) would decrease tactile fremitus. COPD (D) may
decrease tactile fremitus due to hyperinflation. [100% CORRECT]
Q10: Sputum Assessment
A respiratory therapist is evaluating a patient's sputum. Which of the following characteristics is
most consistent with COPD?
A. Clear, watery sputum
B. White, frothy sputum
C. Yellow-green, thick sputum
D. Pink, frothy sputum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: White, frothy sputum may be seen in COPD. Clear, watery sputum (A) is normal. Yellow-
green, thick sputum (C) is consistent with bacterial infection. Pink, frothy sputum (D) is characteristic
of pulmonary edema. [100% CORRECT]
SECTION 2: OXYGEN THERAPY AND DELIVERY – Questions 11-20
Q11: Oxygen Delivery Device Selection
A patient requires an FiO2 of 50% and needs accurate monitoring of inspired oxygen. Which oxygen
delivery device is most appropriate?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Simple mask
C. Venturi mask
D. Non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A Venturi mask provides accurate FiO2 delivery (24-50%) and is the most appropriate
device when precise FiO2 is needed. Nasal cannula (A) provides 24-44% but with variable FiO2.
NBRC TMC EXAM 2026/2027 |
RESPIRATORY THERAPY | 100 VERIFIED
Q&A | DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS
GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: PATIENT ASSESSMENT AND MONITORING – Questions 1-10
Q1: Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation
A 60-year-old patient with renal failure presents with the following ABG: pH 7.28, PaCO2 34 mmHg,
HCO3 16 mEq/L, PaO2 88 mmHg. How should the respiratory therapist interpret this?
A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
B. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
C. Fully compensated metabolic acidosis
D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The pH is acidotic (7.28 < 7.35), HCO3 is low (16 < 22), indicating metabolic acidosis. The
PaCO2 is low (34 < 35), indicating respiratory compensation. Since the pH is still abnormal, this is
partially compensated metabolic acidosis. Fully compensated (C) would have a normal pH.
Uncompensated (A) would have a normal PaCO2. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (D) would
have an elevated pH. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Oximetry Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with a SpO2 of 75%. According to the oxyhemoglobin
dissociation curve, what is the approximate PaO2?
A. 40 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
C. 60 mmHg
D. 70 mmHg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, a SpO2 of 75% corresponds to a PaO2
of approximately 40 mmHg. A PaO2 of 50 mmHg (B) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 85%. A
PaO2 of 60 mmHg (C) corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 90%. A PaO2 of 70 mmHg (D)
corresponds to a SpO2 of approximately 93%. [100% CORRECT]
Q3: Chest X-Ray Interpretation
,2
A respiratory therapist is reviewing a chest X-ray of a patient with a suspected consolidation. Which
of the following findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Increased lung markings
B. Blunting of the costophrenic angle
C. Absent lung markings with a visceral pleural line
D. Cardiomegaly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Consolidation is characterized by increased lung markings (opacities) on chest X-ray.
Blunting of the costophrenic angle (B) would suggest pleural effusion. Absent lung markings with a
visceral pleural line (C) would suggest pneumothorax. Cardiomegaly (D) would show an enlarged
cardiac silhouette. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Patient History - Medication Reconciliation
A respiratory therapist is obtaining a patient history. Which of the following questions is most
important for medication reconciliation?
A. "Do you take any medications?"
B. "What medications do you take, including dosages and frequencies?"
C. "Have you ever had an allergic reaction?"
D. "Do you use any recreational drugs?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important question for medication reconciliation is a detailed list of
medications, including dosages and frequencies. "Do you take any medications?" (A) is too vague.
"Have you ever had an allergic reaction?" (C) assesses allergies, not current medications. "Do you
use any recreational drugs?" (D) assesses substance use, not medications. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Physical Examination - Breath Sounds
A respiratory therapist is auscultating a patient's chest and hears discontinuous, popping sounds
during inspiration. What are these breath sounds called?
A. Crackles
B. Wheezes
C. Rhonchi
D. Pleural friction rub
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crackles are discontinuous, popping sounds heard during inspiration, indicating fluid or
secretions in the small airways. Wheezes (B) are high-pitched, continuous sounds. Rhonchi (C) are
low-pitched, continuous sounds. Pleural friction rub (D) is a grating sound heard during both
inspiration and expiration. [100% CORRECT]
,3
Q6: Vital Signs Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is assessing a patient with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, heart rate of
120 beats/min, and blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg. How should these vital signs be interpreted?
A. Normal
B. Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypotension
C. Bradypnea, bradycardia, and hypertension
D. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 24 is elevated (tachypnea), heart rate of 120 is elevated
(tachycardia), and blood pressure of 90/50 is low (hypotension). Normal (A) is incorrect. Bradypnea,
bradycardia, and hypertension (C) would be decreased respiratory rate, decreased heart rate, and
elevated blood pressure. Tachypnea, bradycardia, and hypotension (D) would be elevated
respiratory rate, decreased heart rate, and low blood pressure. [100% CORRECT]
Q7: Pulse Oximetry Limitations
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with severe anemia. The SpO2 reads 98%. How should
this be interpreted?
A. Normal oxygenation
B. Falsely elevated SpO2
C. Falsely decreased SpO2
D. Accurate SpO2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen, not the
total oxygen content. In severe anemia, the SpO2 may be normal despite decreased oxygen delivery.
Normal oxygenation (A) is correct in terms of saturation. Falsely elevated (B) and falsely decreased
(C) are incorrect. Accurate SpO2 (D) is correct but does not reflect oxygen content. [100% CORRECT]
Q8: Capnography Interpretation
A respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient with capnography. The EtCO2 is 30 mmHg. What is
the most likely cause?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Normal finding
D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A low EtCO2 (30 mmHg) indicates hyperventilation, which causes excessive elimination of
CO2. Hypoventilation (B) would cause an elevated EtCO2. Normal finding (C) would be 35-45 mmHg.
Respiratory acidosis (D) would be associated with hypoventilation and elevated EtCO2. [100%
CORRECT]
, 4
Q9: Chest Assessment - Tactile Fremitus
A respiratory therapist is assessing tactile fremitus. Which of the following conditions would cause
increased tactile fremitus?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Consolidation
D. COPD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Consolidation increases tactile fremitus because solid tissue transmits sound better than
air. Pneumothorax (A) and pleural effusion (B) would decrease tactile fremitus. COPD (D) may
decrease tactile fremitus due to hyperinflation. [100% CORRECT]
Q10: Sputum Assessment
A respiratory therapist is evaluating a patient's sputum. Which of the following characteristics is
most consistent with COPD?
A. Clear, watery sputum
B. White, frothy sputum
C. Yellow-green, thick sputum
D. Pink, frothy sputum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: White, frothy sputum may be seen in COPD. Clear, watery sputum (A) is normal. Yellow-
green, thick sputum (C) is consistent with bacterial infection. Pink, frothy sputum (D) is characteristic
of pulmonary edema. [100% CORRECT]
SECTION 2: OXYGEN THERAPY AND DELIVERY – Questions 11-20
Q11: Oxygen Delivery Device Selection
A patient requires an FiO2 of 50% and needs accurate monitoring of inspired oxygen. Which oxygen
delivery device is most appropriate?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Simple mask
C. Venturi mask
D. Non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A Venturi mask provides accurate FiO2 delivery (24-50%) and is the most appropriate
device when precise FiO2 is needed. Nasal cannula (A) provides 24-44% but with variable FiO2.
