BSN 246 HESI Health Assessment Exam
V2 – Academic Year 2026/2027 –
Comprehensive Examination
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
Question 1. A nurse is counseling a 55-year-old client about secondary
prevention strategies. Which activity best exemplifies secondary prevention?
A. Administering the annual influenza vaccine
B. Performing a mammogram for breast cancer screening
C. Providing cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction
D. Teaching a client about a heart-healthy diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease through
screening. A mammogram detects breast cancer early, allowing for timely
intervention.
Question 2. According to current guidelines, at what age should average-risk
adults begin screening for type 2 diabetes?
A. 25 years
B. 35 years
C. 45 years
D. 55 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for prediabetes and type 2 diabetes
in adults aged 35 to 70 who are overweight or obese.
Question 3. Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?
A. Screening for hypertension
B. Administering the HPV vaccine
C. Performing a colonoscopy
D. Prescribing statins for hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs. The HPV
vaccine prevents HPV infection, which can lead to cervical cancer.
Question 4. A 68-year-old client asks about the pneumococcal vaccine. What is
the recommended schedule for adults aged 65 and older?
A. One dose of PCV20 alone or PCV15 followed by PPSV23
B. Annual booster of PPSV23
C. Two doses of PCV13, 6 months apart
D. No pneumococcal vaccine is recommended
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The CDC recommends PCV20 alone or PCV15 followed by PPSV23
for adults aged 65 and older who have not previously received a pneumococcal
conjugate vaccine.
Question 5. A nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle modifications to reduce
blood pressure. Which recommendation is most effective?
A. Increasing sodium intake
B. Following the DASH diet and reducing sodium intake
C. Drinking more caffeine
D. Avoiding all physical activity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DASH diet, rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy, combined
with sodium restriction, is clinically proven to lower blood pressure.
Question 6. Which screening is recommended for all adults to detect
hypertension?
A. Blood pressure measurement at every healthcare encounter
B. Annual electrocardiogram
C. Serum lipid panel every 5 years
D. Routine echocardiogram
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for hypertension with blood
pressure measurement at every healthcare encounter for all adults 18 years and
older.
Question 7. A 50-year-old client with a BMI of 28 asks about health risks.
What is the most appropriate nursing response?
A. "Your BMI is within normal limits."
B. "You are overweight, which increases your risk for type 2 diabetes and
,cardiovascular disease."
C. "You only need to worry about your weight if you have symptoms."
D. "BMI is not a useful indicator of health."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is classified as overweight, which is associated with
an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
Question 8. Which intervention is an example of tertiary prevention?
A. Administering the HPV vaccine
B. Providing smoking cessation counseling
C. Cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction
D. Performing a Pap smear
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing established disease to prevent
further complications, disability, or death.
Question 9. A nurse is assessing a client's readiness to change. Which stage of
change is the client in if they state, "I have no intention of quitting smoking in
the next 6 months"?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the precontemplation stage, the client is not yet considering change.
The nurse's role is to provide information and raise awareness.
Question 10. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a client
with osteoporosis?
A. Increase caffeine intake
B. Ensure adequate calcium and vitamin D intake
C. Avoid all weight-bearing exercise
D. Increase sodium intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, along with weight-bearing
exercise, are essential for bone health and osteoporosis prevention.
Question 11. A 70-year-old client asks about the shingles vaccine. What is the
recommended schedule for the recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)?
, A. One dose
B. Two doses, 2 to 6 months apart
C. Three doses, 6 months apart
D. Annual booster
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) is administered in two doses,
2 to 6 months apart, for adults aged 50 and older.
Question 12. What is the primary purpose of a health risk assessment?
A. To diagnose acute illnesses
B. To identify modifiable risk factors and guide preventive interventions
C. To prescribe medications
D. To document past medical history only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Health risk assessments identify behaviors and conditions that increase
the risk of disease, guiding tailored preventive counseling and screening.
Question 13. A client reports a sedentary lifestyle. Which recommendation is
most appropriate?
A. "You should run a marathon within 6 months."
B. "Start with 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week,
gradually."
C. "Exercise only on weekends."
D. "Avoid exercise until you lose weight."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend at least 150 minutes of moderate-
intensity aerobic activity per week for adults. Gradual initiation improves
adherence and safety.
Question 14. Which finding is a normal age-related change in the older adult?
A. Decreased hearing acuity for high-pitched sounds
B. Increased heart rate
C. Increased renal clearance
D. Increased lung vital capacity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Presbycusis is a normal age-related sensorineural hearing loss, typically
affecting high-frequency sounds first.
V2 – Academic Year 2026/2027 –
Comprehensive Examination
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
Question 1. A nurse is counseling a 55-year-old client about secondary
prevention strategies. Which activity best exemplifies secondary prevention?
A. Administering the annual influenza vaccine
B. Performing a mammogram for breast cancer screening
C. Providing cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction
D. Teaching a client about a heart-healthy diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease through
screening. A mammogram detects breast cancer early, allowing for timely
intervention.
Question 2. According to current guidelines, at what age should average-risk
adults begin screening for type 2 diabetes?
A. 25 years
B. 35 years
C. 45 years
D. 55 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for prediabetes and type 2 diabetes
in adults aged 35 to 70 who are overweight or obese.
Question 3. Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?
A. Screening for hypertension
B. Administering the HPV vaccine
C. Performing a colonoscopy
D. Prescribing statins for hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs. The HPV
vaccine prevents HPV infection, which can lead to cervical cancer.
Question 4. A 68-year-old client asks about the pneumococcal vaccine. What is
the recommended schedule for adults aged 65 and older?
A. One dose of PCV20 alone or PCV15 followed by PPSV23
B. Annual booster of PPSV23
C. Two doses of PCV13, 6 months apart
D. No pneumococcal vaccine is recommended
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The CDC recommends PCV20 alone or PCV15 followed by PPSV23
for adults aged 65 and older who have not previously received a pneumococcal
conjugate vaccine.
Question 5. A nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle modifications to reduce
blood pressure. Which recommendation is most effective?
A. Increasing sodium intake
B. Following the DASH diet and reducing sodium intake
C. Drinking more caffeine
D. Avoiding all physical activity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DASH diet, rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy, combined
with sodium restriction, is clinically proven to lower blood pressure.
Question 6. Which screening is recommended for all adults to detect
hypertension?
A. Blood pressure measurement at every healthcare encounter
B. Annual electrocardiogram
C. Serum lipid panel every 5 years
D. Routine echocardiogram
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for hypertension with blood
pressure measurement at every healthcare encounter for all adults 18 years and
older.
Question 7. A 50-year-old client with a BMI of 28 asks about health risks.
What is the most appropriate nursing response?
A. "Your BMI is within normal limits."
B. "You are overweight, which increases your risk for type 2 diabetes and
,cardiovascular disease."
C. "You only need to worry about your weight if you have symptoms."
D. "BMI is not a useful indicator of health."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is classified as overweight, which is associated with
an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
Question 8. Which intervention is an example of tertiary prevention?
A. Administering the HPV vaccine
B. Providing smoking cessation counseling
C. Cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction
D. Performing a Pap smear
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing established disease to prevent
further complications, disability, or death.
Question 9. A nurse is assessing a client's readiness to change. Which stage of
change is the client in if they state, "I have no intention of quitting smoking in
the next 6 months"?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the precontemplation stage, the client is not yet considering change.
The nurse's role is to provide information and raise awareness.
Question 10. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a client
with osteoporosis?
A. Increase caffeine intake
B. Ensure adequate calcium and vitamin D intake
C. Avoid all weight-bearing exercise
D. Increase sodium intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, along with weight-bearing
exercise, are essential for bone health and osteoporosis prevention.
Question 11. A 70-year-old client asks about the shingles vaccine. What is the
recommended schedule for the recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)?
, A. One dose
B. Two doses, 2 to 6 months apart
C. Three doses, 6 months apart
D. Annual booster
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) is administered in two doses,
2 to 6 months apart, for adults aged 50 and older.
Question 12. What is the primary purpose of a health risk assessment?
A. To diagnose acute illnesses
B. To identify modifiable risk factors and guide preventive interventions
C. To prescribe medications
D. To document past medical history only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Health risk assessments identify behaviors and conditions that increase
the risk of disease, guiding tailored preventive counseling and screening.
Question 13. A client reports a sedentary lifestyle. Which recommendation is
most appropriate?
A. "You should run a marathon within 6 months."
B. "Start with 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week,
gradually."
C. "Exercise only on weekends."
D. "Avoid exercise until you lose weight."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend at least 150 minutes of moderate-
intensity aerobic activity per week for adults. Gradual initiation improves
adherence and safety.
Question 14. Which finding is a normal age-related change in the older adult?
A. Decreased hearing acuity for high-pitched sounds
B. Increased heart rate
C. Increased renal clearance
D. Increased lung vital capacity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Presbycusis is a normal age-related sensorineural hearing loss, typically
affecting high-frequency sounds first.
