EXAM 4: NU110 / NU 110 (LATEST UPDATE )
INTEGRATED HUMAN SCIENCES | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
100% CORRECT | GRADE A — GALEN
Galen College of Nursing • NU 110 Course Examination • 100 Items • Cognitive Mix: 25% Recall / 50% Application / 25%
Analysis
Section 1: Anatomy & Physiology Foundations (Q1–Q20)
Q1: A patient presents with a penetrating wound to the chest. The wound is located on the anterior surface of
the thorax, superior to the xiphoid process and lateral to the sternum on the left side. Which anatomical
directional term best describes the wound's location relative to the heart?
A. Medial and inferior to the heart
B. Anterior and superficial to the heart [CORRECT]
C. Posterior and deep to the heart
D. Distal and contralateral to the heart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The wound is on the anterior (front) chest wall and superficial (closer to the surface) relative to the heart, which
lies deeper within the mediastinum. 'Medial/inferior' is incorrect because the wound is lateral to the sternum and at the level
of the heart. 'Posterior/deep' contradicts the anterior location described. 'Distal/contralateral' are limb orientation terms not
applicable to trunk structures. NU 110 A&P; foundations require mastery of directional terminology to accurately describe
clinical findings and document assessment data.
Q2: A surgeon must remove a tumor located in the pleural cavity. Which body cavity subdivision is directly
involved in this procedure?
A. Pericardial cavity
B. Ventral cavity, thoracic subdivision [CORRECT]
C. Dorsal cavity, cranial subdivision
D. Abdominopelvic cavity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The pleural cavity is part of the thoracic cavity, which is a subdivision of the larger ventral body cavity. The
pericardial cavity surrounds only the heart. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial and spinal cavities. The abdominopelvic
cavity is inferior to the diaphragm and contains digestive and urinary organs. Understanding body cavities is foundational
for localizing pathology and planning surgical interventions in NU 110 integrated sciences.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 1
,EXAM 4: NU110 Integrated Human Sciences (2026/2027)
Q3: A biopsy reveals cells with abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum and a well-developed Golgi apparatus.
Based on these organelles, what is the primary function of these cells?
A. Energy production through aerobic respiration
B. Active protein synthesis and secretion [CORRECT]
C. Storage of genetic material
D. Detoxification of hydrogen peroxide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abundant rough ER (with ribosomes) and a prominent Golgi apparatus are hallmarks of cells actively
synthesizing and secreting proteins, such as plasma cells producing antibodies or pancreatic acinar cells producing digestive
enzymes. Mitochondria handle aerobic respiration (option A). The nucleus stores genetic material (option C). Peroxisomes
detoxify hydrogen peroxide (option D). This question integrates cellular biology with physiological function, a core NU 110
competency.
Q4: A histology slide shows a tissue with cells arranged in sheets, tightly joined by tight junctions and
desmosomes, with one free surface and one basement membrane. This tissue is classified as:
A. Connective tissue proper
B. Epithelial tissue [CORRECT]
C. Muscular tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epithelial tissue is characterized by closely packed cells with little extracellular matrix, an apical (free) surface, a
basement membrane, and avascularity. Tight junctions and desmosomes are characteristic cell-to-cell junctions. Connective
tissue has abundant matrix; muscular tissue contracts; nervous tissue transmits impulses. Recognizing the four primary tissue
types is foundational in NU 110 for understanding organ structure and pathology.
Q5: A 45-year-old patient sustains a full-thickness burn involving the epidermis, dermis, and underlying
subcutaneous tissue on the right arm. Which statement best explains why this injury significantly impairs
thermoregulation and increases infection risk?
A. The burn destroys melanocytes, eliminating UV protection only
B. The burn destroys sweat glands, hair follicles, and sensory receptors, disrupting barrier and
regulatory functions [CORRECT]
C. The burn affects only the stratum corneum, allowing rapid regeneration
D. The burn increases keratinocyte production, causing excessive scarring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full-thickness (third-degree) burns destroy the entire dermis along with appendages (sweat glands, hair follicles,
sebaceous glands) and sensory receptors, eliminating thermoregulation via sweating, barrier function, and sensation.
Melanocyte loss is a partial component but not the primary issue (option A). Option C describes a superficial burn. Option D
misrepresents the pathophysiology — keratinocytes cannot regenerate from a fully destroyed dermis without grafting. This
scenario integrates integumentary A&P; with burn pathophysiology.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 2
,EXAM 4: NU110 Integrated Human Sciences (2026/2027)
Q6: An elderly patient presents with a fractured femoral neck after a minor fall. Radiographic imaging
reveals a 'wedge fracture' consistent with osteoporosis. Which cellular mechanism best explains the bone loss
in this patient?
A. Increased osteoblast activity exceeding osteoclast activity
B. Imbalance favoring osteoclast-mediated resorption over osteoblast-mediated bone formation
[CORRECT]
C. Defective calcitonin secretion from the thyroid gland
D. Excessive osteoid production without mineralization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Osteoporosis results from an imbalance where osteoclast bone resorption exceeds osteoblast bone formation,
leading to decreased bone mass and structural deterioration. Option A describes the opposite imbalance (seen in Paget's
disease early stages). Calcitonin deficiency is not the primary driver (option C). Option D describes osteomalacia. This
integrates skeletal A&P; with metabolic bone disease pathophysiology — a core NU 110 linkage.
Q7: A patient is diagnosed with a strain of the gastrocnemius muscle. Which structural element of muscle
tissue is primarily injured in a strain?
A. Tendon connecting muscle to bone
B. Muscle fibers or musculotendinous junction [CORRECT]
C. Ligament connecting bone to bone
D. Fascia surrounding the muscle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A strain is an injury to muscle fibers or the musculotendinous junction, whereas a sprain is an injury to ligaments
(bone-to-bone). Tendons connect muscle to bone and may be involved at the junction. Ligaments (option C) are involved in
sprains. Fascia (option D) is connective tissue surrounding muscle but not the primary structure in a strain. Distinguishing
sprains from strains requires integration of muscular and skeletal A&P; — a foundational NU 110 skill.
Q8: A neuron receives a stimulus that causes sodium channels to open, allowing Na+ influx. If the threshold
potential is reached, what is the immediate next event in the action potential?
A. Potassium channels open and K+ leaves the cell, causing repolarization [CORRECT]
B. Calcium channels open and Ca2+ enters, triggering neurotransmitter release
C. Chloride channels open and Cl- enters, causing hyperpolarization
D. Sodium-potassium pump reverses direction, restoring resting potential
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After depolarization (Na+ influx), the action potential is followed immediately by repolarization, when
voltage-gated K+ channels open and K+ efflux restores the negative membrane potential. Calcium influx at the axon
terminal (option B) occurs later, after the action potential propagates to the synaptic terminal. Chloride influx (option C) is
associated with inhibitory postsynaptic potentials, not action potentials. The Na+/K+ pump (option D) maintains resting
potential over time but is not responsible for the rapid repolarization phase.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 3
, EXAM 4: NU110 Integrated Human Sciences (2026/2027)
Q9: A patient presents with a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) affecting the left hemisphere. Based on brain
lateralization, which function is most likely to be impaired?
A. Spatial awareness and facial recognition
B. Language production (Broca's area) in most right-handed individuals [CORRECT]
C. Emotional intonation of speech (prosody)
D. Attention to the left side of the body
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In approximately 95% of right-handed individuals and 70% of left-handed individuals, the left hemisphere is
dominant for language, including Broca's area (speech production) and Wernicke's area (comprehension). Spatial
awareness and prosody are typically right-hemisphere functions (options A and C). Left-side neglect (option D) is a
right-hemisphere lesion phenomenon. This integrates neuroanatomy with clinical stroke assessment in NU 110.
Q10: Auscultation of the heart reveals the 'lub' (S1) sound. Which cardiac event produces this sound?
A. Closure of the aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves
B. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid (AV) valves [CORRECT]
C. Opening of the semilunar valves
D. Rapid filling of the ventricles from the atria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: S1 ('lub') is produced by closure of the atrioventricular (mitral and tricuspid) valves at the beginning of
ventricular systole. S2 ('dub') is produced by closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonic) valves at the end of systole
(option A). Valve openings are generally silent (option C). Rapid ventricular filling occurs during diastole and may produce
S3 in pathological states (option D). Understanding the cardiac cycle is foundational to cardiovascular assessment in NU
110.
Q11: A 68-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea, bilateral lower extremity
edema, and jugular venous distension. Echocardiography reveals an ejection fraction of 35%. Which
physiological mechanism best explains these manifestations?
A. Decreased afterload leading to excessive ventricular emptying
B. Reduced cardiac output causing compensatory fluid retention and venous congestion [CORRECT]
C. Increased myocardial perfusion leading to edema formation
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy causing isolated pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) leads to decreased cardiac output, activating the
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and sympathetic nervous system, causing fluid retention and venous
congestion that manifests as edema and JVD. Decreased afterload (option A) is not characteristic of HTN-driven HF.
Increased perfusion does not cause edema (option C). Right ventricular hypertrophy alone does not explain bilateral
symptoms (option D). This scenario integrates cardiac physiology with HF pathophysiology.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 4
INTEGRATED HUMAN SCIENCES | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
100% CORRECT | GRADE A — GALEN
Galen College of Nursing • NU 110 Course Examination • 100 Items • Cognitive Mix: 25% Recall / 50% Application / 25%
Analysis
Section 1: Anatomy & Physiology Foundations (Q1–Q20)
Q1: A patient presents with a penetrating wound to the chest. The wound is located on the anterior surface of
the thorax, superior to the xiphoid process and lateral to the sternum on the left side. Which anatomical
directional term best describes the wound's location relative to the heart?
A. Medial and inferior to the heart
B. Anterior and superficial to the heart [CORRECT]
C. Posterior and deep to the heart
D. Distal and contralateral to the heart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The wound is on the anterior (front) chest wall and superficial (closer to the surface) relative to the heart, which
lies deeper within the mediastinum. 'Medial/inferior' is incorrect because the wound is lateral to the sternum and at the level
of the heart. 'Posterior/deep' contradicts the anterior location described. 'Distal/contralateral' are limb orientation terms not
applicable to trunk structures. NU 110 A&P; foundations require mastery of directional terminology to accurately describe
clinical findings and document assessment data.
Q2: A surgeon must remove a tumor located in the pleural cavity. Which body cavity subdivision is directly
involved in this procedure?
A. Pericardial cavity
B. Ventral cavity, thoracic subdivision [CORRECT]
C. Dorsal cavity, cranial subdivision
D. Abdominopelvic cavity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The pleural cavity is part of the thoracic cavity, which is a subdivision of the larger ventral body cavity. The
pericardial cavity surrounds only the heart. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial and spinal cavities. The abdominopelvic
cavity is inferior to the diaphragm and contains digestive and urinary organs. Understanding body cavities is foundational
for localizing pathology and planning surgical interventions in NU 110 integrated sciences.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 1
,EXAM 4: NU110 Integrated Human Sciences (2026/2027)
Q3: A biopsy reveals cells with abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum and a well-developed Golgi apparatus.
Based on these organelles, what is the primary function of these cells?
A. Energy production through aerobic respiration
B. Active protein synthesis and secretion [CORRECT]
C. Storage of genetic material
D. Detoxification of hydrogen peroxide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abundant rough ER (with ribosomes) and a prominent Golgi apparatus are hallmarks of cells actively
synthesizing and secreting proteins, such as plasma cells producing antibodies or pancreatic acinar cells producing digestive
enzymes. Mitochondria handle aerobic respiration (option A). The nucleus stores genetic material (option C). Peroxisomes
detoxify hydrogen peroxide (option D). This question integrates cellular biology with physiological function, a core NU 110
competency.
Q4: A histology slide shows a tissue with cells arranged in sheets, tightly joined by tight junctions and
desmosomes, with one free surface and one basement membrane. This tissue is classified as:
A. Connective tissue proper
B. Epithelial tissue [CORRECT]
C. Muscular tissue
D. Nervous tissue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epithelial tissue is characterized by closely packed cells with little extracellular matrix, an apical (free) surface, a
basement membrane, and avascularity. Tight junctions and desmosomes are characteristic cell-to-cell junctions. Connective
tissue has abundant matrix; muscular tissue contracts; nervous tissue transmits impulses. Recognizing the four primary tissue
types is foundational in NU 110 for understanding organ structure and pathology.
Q5: A 45-year-old patient sustains a full-thickness burn involving the epidermis, dermis, and underlying
subcutaneous tissue on the right arm. Which statement best explains why this injury significantly impairs
thermoregulation and increases infection risk?
A. The burn destroys melanocytes, eliminating UV protection only
B. The burn destroys sweat glands, hair follicles, and sensory receptors, disrupting barrier and
regulatory functions [CORRECT]
C. The burn affects only the stratum corneum, allowing rapid regeneration
D. The burn increases keratinocyte production, causing excessive scarring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full-thickness (third-degree) burns destroy the entire dermis along with appendages (sweat glands, hair follicles,
sebaceous glands) and sensory receptors, eliminating thermoregulation via sweating, barrier function, and sensation.
Melanocyte loss is a partial component but not the primary issue (option A). Option C describes a superficial burn. Option D
misrepresents the pathophysiology — keratinocytes cannot regenerate from a fully destroyed dermis without grafting. This
scenario integrates integumentary A&P; with burn pathophysiology.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 2
,EXAM 4: NU110 Integrated Human Sciences (2026/2027)
Q6: An elderly patient presents with a fractured femoral neck after a minor fall. Radiographic imaging
reveals a 'wedge fracture' consistent with osteoporosis. Which cellular mechanism best explains the bone loss
in this patient?
A. Increased osteoblast activity exceeding osteoclast activity
B. Imbalance favoring osteoclast-mediated resorption over osteoblast-mediated bone formation
[CORRECT]
C. Defective calcitonin secretion from the thyroid gland
D. Excessive osteoid production without mineralization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Osteoporosis results from an imbalance where osteoclast bone resorption exceeds osteoblast bone formation,
leading to decreased bone mass and structural deterioration. Option A describes the opposite imbalance (seen in Paget's
disease early stages). Calcitonin deficiency is not the primary driver (option C). Option D describes osteomalacia. This
integrates skeletal A&P; with metabolic bone disease pathophysiology — a core NU 110 linkage.
Q7: A patient is diagnosed with a strain of the gastrocnemius muscle. Which structural element of muscle
tissue is primarily injured in a strain?
A. Tendon connecting muscle to bone
B. Muscle fibers or musculotendinous junction [CORRECT]
C. Ligament connecting bone to bone
D. Fascia surrounding the muscle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A strain is an injury to muscle fibers or the musculotendinous junction, whereas a sprain is an injury to ligaments
(bone-to-bone). Tendons connect muscle to bone and may be involved at the junction. Ligaments (option C) are involved in
sprains. Fascia (option D) is connective tissue surrounding muscle but not the primary structure in a strain. Distinguishing
sprains from strains requires integration of muscular and skeletal A&P; — a foundational NU 110 skill.
Q8: A neuron receives a stimulus that causes sodium channels to open, allowing Na+ influx. If the threshold
potential is reached, what is the immediate next event in the action potential?
A. Potassium channels open and K+ leaves the cell, causing repolarization [CORRECT]
B. Calcium channels open and Ca2+ enters, triggering neurotransmitter release
C. Chloride channels open and Cl- enters, causing hyperpolarization
D. Sodium-potassium pump reverses direction, restoring resting potential
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After depolarization (Na+ influx), the action potential is followed immediately by repolarization, when
voltage-gated K+ channels open and K+ efflux restores the negative membrane potential. Calcium influx at the axon
terminal (option B) occurs later, after the action potential propagates to the synaptic terminal. Chloride influx (option C) is
associated with inhibitory postsynaptic potentials, not action potentials. The Na+/K+ pump (option D) maintains resting
potential over time but is not responsible for the rapid repolarization phase.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 3
, EXAM 4: NU110 Integrated Human Sciences (2026/2027)
Q9: A patient presents with a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) affecting the left hemisphere. Based on brain
lateralization, which function is most likely to be impaired?
A. Spatial awareness and facial recognition
B. Language production (Broca's area) in most right-handed individuals [CORRECT]
C. Emotional intonation of speech (prosody)
D. Attention to the left side of the body
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In approximately 95% of right-handed individuals and 70% of left-handed individuals, the left hemisphere is
dominant for language, including Broca's area (speech production) and Wernicke's area (comprehension). Spatial
awareness and prosody are typically right-hemisphere functions (options A and C). Left-side neglect (option D) is a
right-hemisphere lesion phenomenon. This integrates neuroanatomy with clinical stroke assessment in NU 110.
Q10: Auscultation of the heart reveals the 'lub' (S1) sound. Which cardiac event produces this sound?
A. Closure of the aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves
B. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid (AV) valves [CORRECT]
C. Opening of the semilunar valves
D. Rapid filling of the ventricles from the atria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: S1 ('lub') is produced by closure of the atrioventricular (mitral and tricuspid) valves at the beginning of
ventricular systole. S2 ('dub') is produced by closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonic) valves at the end of systole
(option A). Valve openings are generally silent (option C). Rapid ventricular filling occurs during diastole and may produce
S3 in pathological states (option D). Understanding the cardiac cycle is foundational to cardiovascular assessment in NU
110.
Q11: A 68-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea, bilateral lower extremity
edema, and jugular venous distension. Echocardiography reveals an ejection fraction of 35%. Which
physiological mechanism best explains these manifestations?
A. Decreased afterload leading to excessive ventricular emptying
B. Reduced cardiac output causing compensatory fluid retention and venous congestion [CORRECT]
C. Increased myocardial perfusion leading to edema formation
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy causing isolated pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) leads to decreased cardiac output, activating the
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and sympathetic nervous system, causing fluid retention and venous
congestion that manifests as edema and JVD. Decreased afterload (option A) is not characteristic of HTN-driven HF.
Increased perfusion does not cause edema (option C). Right ventricular hypertrophy alone does not explain bilateral
symptoms (option D). This scenario integrates cardiac physiology with HF pathophysiology.
NU110 Exam 4 — Integrated Human Sciences | Page 4
